I'm interested in knowing more about the question if $f(\pi)$ is rational or not, where $f$ is some well-known function. For example, $\cos(\pi) =-1$ is rational, while ${e}^{\pi}$ is irrational as shown here by WolframAlpha.
My question here is: Is it possible to know if $\log(\pi)$ is rational or not since the $\log$ function is the inverse of the $\exp$ function?
Thank you for any help.