Assume that we have $\epsilon_1, \; \epsilon_2$ independent white noises.
Can I write $\int_{0}^1 \epsilon_1^2(t)dt$
Can I write $\int_{0}^1 \epsilon_1(t) \epsilon_2(t)dt$
1 and 2 obviously make no sense in $L^2$ nor in terms of Wiener integral. Is there any way I can make sense out of it?