i don't know how to write math in Latex so i will try to explain it simply,

if we multiply $$\frac{p(i)^2}{p(i)^2-1}\prod_{j=1}^5\frac{p(i+j)^2-1}{p(i+j)^2} ,$$ where $p(i)$ denote the $i$-th prime number, is this product always less or equal to 1 when $i\geq3$ (meaning $p(i)\geq5$)?