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We have the Toeplitz operator $T:l^{\infty}(Z, R^2) \to l^{\infty}(Z, R^2)$. We computed spectrum of $T$ on $l^2$ using its symbol (symbol is continuous function $\varphi(z)$ and eigenvalues of $\varphi(z)$ are real for every $z$, $|z|=1$). What can be said about spectrum of $T$ on $l^{\infty}$? We suspect that it coincides with $l^2$ spectrum.

In our case elements of matrix $T$ are $2 \times 2$ real matrices and $\varphi(z)$ is complex matrix $2 \times 2$.

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2 Answers 2

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That is, indeed, true, though not totally obvious. The point is that for $T$ to act in $\ell^\infty$, the symbol $\varphi$ must be not merely continuous, but in the Wiener space (i.e., to have an absolutely convergent Fourier series) and the matrix-valued function $\psi=\lambda I-\varphi$ is invertible in the Wiener space if and only if it is invertible pointwise on the circle (of course, the inverse is just $\psi^{-1}$; the non-trivial part of the story is that it is in the Wiener space).

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  • $\begingroup$ Could you please give some references for the fact that if $\psi$ is pointwise invertible on the circle then it is invertible in the Wiener space? $\endgroup$
    – Karina K.
    Commented Aug 26, 2016 at 13:10
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    $\begingroup$ @KarinaK. See mth.kcl.ac.uk/staff/eb_davies/Wiener7.pdf. Formally you have a non-commutative case, but you can just estimate the norms entrywise, which will give an extra exponential factor (matrix size) in the final series for the inverse. However, that series has another exponential factor in it (the approximation precision), so it is harmless. $\endgroup$
    – fedja
    Commented Aug 26, 2016 at 13:39
  • $\begingroup$ @fedja it looks that the answer by OP below is actually a comment to your answer (comments are forbidden for users with reputation less than 50). $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 18, 2016 at 19:27
  • $\begingroup$ @FedorPetrov Yeah, indeed. Thanks for attracting my attention to it :-). I responded by now. $\endgroup$
    – fedja
    Commented Sep 18, 2016 at 20:34
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I am afraid that the proof given in Davies does not work in not commutative case. The series given for $f^{-1}$: $$\sum_{n=0}^\infty (g-f)^{n}g^{-n-1}$$ indeed converges due to estimate on $||g^{-n}||$. But it has nothing to do with $f^{-1}$. It is apparently inspired by a geometric progression with $q=(g-f)g^{-1}$ (then $(1-q)^{-1}=((g-g+f)g^{-1})^{-1}=gf^{-1}$). But in not-commutable case $q^{n}\neq (g-f)^{n}g^{-n}$ (there is no reason for $g-f$ or $f$ to commute with $g^{-1}$).

It seems that if we assume $f\in C^1$ then we may require that both $||g-f||_{\infty}$ and $||g'-f'||_{\infty}$ are small. Hence $||g^{-1}||_{W}\le c(f)$. Consequently $||q||_{W} < 1$ for sufficiently small $||g-f||_{C^{1}}$.

If $a_n$ are Fourier coefficients of $f$ it is enough to ask $\sum ||na_n||<\infty$ for $f \in C^1$. It would be great to avoid this extra condition.

Is there a counterexample for $f\in W \setminus C^1$?

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    $\begingroup$ You shouldn't be that literal when reading mathematics. Of course, the series should be the one you get from $f^{-1}=(g-h)^{-1}=(I-g^{-1}h)^{-1}g^{-1}=[I+g^{-1}h+g^{-1}hg^{-1}h+g^{-1}hg^{-1}hg^{-1}h+\dots]g^{-1}$. However, if you honestly write the matrix elements, you can put the entries of $g$ together in the products, after which the proof works. Will you figure it out yourself, or you want me to spell it out for you? $\endgroup$
    – fedja
    Commented Sep 18, 2016 at 20:30
  • $\begingroup$ I successfully laid out the proof. Estimate derivation is very bulky, it is 'one dimensional' in essence. When I finished the text I suddenly realized that there is a simple way to derive it from the one dimesional Wiener theorem: let us consider $f(z)=\det \varphi(z)$, it belongs to $W^1$ since $W^1$ is an algebra. $\varphi$ is point-wise invertible by assumption hence $f(z)\ne 0$ for all $z$. Therefore by one dimensional Wiener theorem $\frac{1}{\det \varphi} \in W^1$. Hence $\varphi^{-1}\in W$ (its matrix elements are products of $\frac{1}{\det \varphi}$ with matrix elements of $\varphi$). $\endgroup$
    – user98553
    Commented Sep 30, 2016 at 21:32
  • $\begingroup$ What do you think about the simple proof? $\endgroup$
    – user98553
    Commented Sep 30, 2016 at 21:33
  • $\begingroup$ If you want to attract someone's attention, write their name after at sign, like @fedja $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 30, 2016 at 22:23
  • $\begingroup$ "What do you think about the simple proof?" It is even better, of course :-) Anyway, this way, or that, the nice thing is that it works and another nice thing is that you know this stuff now. $\endgroup$
    – fedja
    Commented Oct 1, 2016 at 3:03

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