I am confused about the following question.
Consider $\mathbb C^4$ endowed with nondegenerate symmetric bilinear form $J:=\left(\begin{matrix}0&0&0&1\\0&0&1&0\\0&1&0&0\\1&0&0&0\end{matrix}\right)$. Let $X:=OG(2,4)$ denote the orthogonal grassmannian of isotropic 2-planes in $\mathbb C^4$. We have a matrix representation for it by nondegenerate $2\times 4$ matrix $A:=\left(\begin{matrix}a_{11}&a_{12}&a_{13}&a_{14}\\a_{21}&a_{22}&a_{23}&a_{24}\end{matrix}\right)$, which satisfies $AJA^t=0.$ If $\left(\begin{matrix}a_{11}&a_{12}\\a_{21}&a_{22}\end{matrix}\right)$ is nondegenerate then we can take a zariski open set of $X$ as $\left(\begin{matrix}1&0&a&0\\0&1&0&-a\end{matrix}\right)$. If $\left(\begin{matrix}a_{11}&a_{13}\\a_{21}&a_{23}\end{matrix}\right)$ is nondegenerate then we have another Zariski open set of $X$ as $\left(\begin{matrix}1&a&0&0\\0&0&1&-a\end{matrix}\right)$.
But then this two sets are disjoint, which is impossible. I think I must make a mistake but where it is?