Suppose $G, H$ are finite, simple, undirected graphs and there is a bijection between the vertex sets $\varphi:V(G) \to V(H)$ such that for all $v\in V$ we have $$\text{deg}_G(v) = \deg_H(\varphi(v)).$$
Does this imply that $\chi(G) = \chi(H)$?
Suppose $G, H$ are finite, simple, undirected graphs and there is a bijection between the vertex sets $\varphi:V(G) \to V(H)$ such that for all $v\in V$ we have $$\text{deg}_G(v) = \deg_H(\varphi(v)).$$
Does this imply that $\chi(G) = \chi(H)$?
Let $G$ be a 6-cycle and let $H$ be two 3-cycles.
Or, if you want them connected, let $G$ be a 6-cycle with an extra edge between vertices 1 and 3, and $H$ a 6-cycle with an extra edge between vertices 1 and 4.
There is also a general principle one can apply: If you have any parameter $\alpha$ of graphs so that there is an efficient (polynomial-time) algorithm to compute $\alpha (G)$, then it is extremely implausible that $\alpha$ determines the chromatic number since this would imply that $P=NP$. (It is known that computing the chromatic number is $NP$-hard.)