15
$\begingroup$

Let $f(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$ be a degree $d>1$ polynomial with integer coefficients. Define

$$r(n) := | \{x,y \in \mathbb{Z} : f(x)+f(y) = n \}|. $$

My question is:

Is it true that $r(n) \ll_{\epsilon} n^{\epsilon} $ for $\epsilon >0$?

In certain cases (such as $ f(x)=x^{2k}$), one can "factor" the problem and deduce the desired result from the divisor bound. However, I do not see how to approach the general case in this manner. I am aware that there is a weaker but more general result of Bombieri and Pila which states that

$$r'(n,M) := | \{x,y \in \mathbb{Z} : f(x,y) = n, |x|,|y| < M \}| $$

satisfies $r'(n,M) \ll_{\epsilon} M^{1/d + \epsilon} $when $f(x,y)$ is an absolutely irreducible polynomial of degree $d$. In this greater level of generality this is nearly best possible as can be seen by taking $f(x,y) = x^d -y$.

$\endgroup$
10
  • $\begingroup$ Just out of curiosity, is there a story (similar to classical theta functions, along the lines of Fourier coefficient of modular forms) for series of the shape $\sum_{n \in \mathbb{Z}} \exp(2\pi i f(n)x)$ where $f(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$ is a degree $d > 2$ polynomial? $\endgroup$
    – Pig
    Mar 2, 2016 at 6:48
  • $\begingroup$ A related question is mathoverflow.net/questions/45511. $\endgroup$ Mar 2, 2016 at 22:05
  • $\begingroup$ The implied constant in the bound you seek can depend on $f$, correct? $\endgroup$ Mar 2, 2016 at 23:20
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @GH, are you saying that because then the genus is at least 2, and boundedness would follow from the Bombieri-Lang Conjecture, or is there something more concrete that would apply to these specific curves? $\endgroup$ Mar 3, 2016 at 2:51
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ I assume Bobby Grizzard is referring to the result of Caporaso-Harris-Mazur that shows that Bombieri-Lang gives a uniform bound on the rational points of any curve of a fixed genus greater than or equal to 2: ams.org/mathscinet-getitem?mr=1325796 . This would indeed seem to give GH's claim, conditional of course on Bombieri-Lang. $\endgroup$
    – Terry Tao
    Mar 3, 2016 at 5:06

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

I don't have the rep to comment so I will just mention something here, though I would guess you might have recognized it already.

You can certainly bound the number of solutions to $f(x)-f(y)=n$ by writing $$f(x)-f(y)=(x-y)H(x,y)$$ for some polynomial $H$ that depends only on $f$. Then $x-y=d$ divides $n$ and $H(x,x-d)=n/d$ so there are $O_f(1)$ choices for $x$. Going from differences to sums is probably hard.

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ I had also observed this after posting the question. It certainly seems that this can't be generalized in any straightforward way to sums since there are polynomials such that f(x)+f(y) does not have linear factors. $\endgroup$
    – Mark Lewko
    Mar 6, 2016 at 23:38
  • $\begingroup$ Do you know when $f(x)+f(y)$ is absolutely irreducible? It's tempting to try and repeat the argument in a number field. $\endgroup$ Mar 6, 2016 at 23:48
  • $\begingroup$ I'm not sure. I thought about that briefly but didn't get too far. This quickly leads to questions outside of my expertise. $\endgroup$
    – Mark Lewko
    Mar 6, 2016 at 23:54
  • $\begingroup$ The answer at mathoverflow.net/questions/105304/… seems relevant here. $\endgroup$
    – Terry Tao
    Mar 7, 2016 at 7:55

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.