Setup:
If $\langle \Omega, \mathfrak{F},\mu \rangle$ is a measure space, $f:\Omega \rightarrow E$ is a weakly-measurable function to a Banach space $E$, $g: E \rightarrow E'$ is a diffeomorphism and for simplicity say $E$ is reflexive.
Recall that the $E$-valued Dunford-Pettis integral of $f$ over $\Omega$ is defined as the (unique) solution $e$ to: \begin{equation} (\forall x^* \in E^*)\, x^*(e) = \int_{\Omega} x^*(f(\omega)) d\mu(\omega) \end{equation} and we denote it by $\int_\Omega f d\mu$.
Question 1
My question is: is it true that: $g(\int_{\Omega} f d\mu) = \int_{\Omega} g \circ f d\mu $, where the integral here are the Pettis integrals?
Question 2 Since question $1$ was shown to be false, for what $g$ if is does the above equation hold true in general (if any)?