I've heard that several category and topos theorists, first and foremost Johnstone (see the comments to this question) adamantly insist on 'toposes' as the plural of 'topos'. I was wondering whether there is some reason beyond pure preference here and what the history of these variants is.
closed as primarily opinion-based by Neil Strickland, Qfwfq, Marco Golla, Zhen Lin, Noah Schweber Sep 14 '15 at 16:09
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