I want to prove the proposition:
Proposition- Let $f:I \to I$ be continuos, and let f have a (2n+1)- periodic orbit {$x_{k}=f^{k}(x_{0})$, $k=0,1,\dots,2n$}, but no (2m+1)-periodic orbit for $1\leqslant m < n$. Suposse $x_{0}$ is in the middle of all $x_{i}$'. Then one of the two permutations
$$ (i) \ x_{2n}<x_{2n-2}<\dots<x_{2}<x_{0}<x_{1}<\dots<x_{2n-3}<x_{2n-1}$$
$$ (i) \ x_{2n-1}<x_{2n-3}<\dots<x_{1}<x_{0}<x_{2}<\dots<x_{2n-2}<x_{2n}$$
is valid.
Remark: I is an interval in the real line.
At the beginning of the proof he makes this statement that I can not justify
Supose n>1. Reorder {$x_{k}=f^{k}(x_{0})$, $k=0,1,\dots,2n$} as {$z_{i}$, $i=1,\dots,2n+1$} such that $$z_{1}<z_{2}<\dots<z_{2n+1}$$
Why i this is correct? What I win with this?
- Article, pg 4- From intermediate value theorem to chaos