2
$\begingroup$

Please forgive me if this is a very easy question.

Let $A \subset [0,1]$ be a Borel-measurable set with strictly positive Lebesgue measure. Does there necessarily exist a countable subgroup $G$ of $\mathbb{R}$ such that the set $$ \{ t \in [0,1] : (t+G) \cap A \neq \emptyset \} $$ has Lebesgue measure 1?

$\endgroup$
6
  • 5
    $\begingroup$ Take $G=\mathbb{Q}$. Then $A-G$ has full measure (say, by the Lebesgue density theorem), so $(t+G)\cap A\neq\varnothing$ for almost all $t$. $\endgroup$ Jun 28, 2015 at 2:45
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ By monotone convergence, we can compute the measure of the displayed set as a limit where we replace $A$ by $U_n$, if $\chi_{U_n}$ decreases to $\chi_A$ a.e. Now use outer regularity to approximate $A$ by open sets, and take any dense $G$. $\endgroup$ Jun 28, 2015 at 5:15
  • $\begingroup$ @PabloShmerkin: Thank you very much for this, this is a nice simple solution. $\endgroup$ Jun 28, 2015 at 10:42
  • $\begingroup$ @ChristianRemling: Thank you for your answer. This is also a very nice answer. $\endgroup$ Jun 28, 2015 at 11:09
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @ChristianRemling: In other words, having $U_n \downarrow A$ does not imply $U_n - G \downarrow A - G$. $\endgroup$ Sep 15, 2015 at 19:02

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

As an exercise to myself, I thought I would write out the Lebesgue density argument suggested by Pablo Shmerkin.

Let $C$ be any countable dense subset of $\mathbb{R}$, such as $\mathbb{Q}$ (it doesn't have to be a subgroup). Note that $\{t \in [0,1] : (t+C) \cap A \ne \emptyset\}$ can be written more concisely as $(A-C) \cap [0,1]$.

For a measurable set $B$, Let $L_B(x) = \liminf_{r \to 0} \frac{1}{2r}m(B \cap (x-r, x+r))$ be the lower density of $B$ at $x$. Lebesgue's theorem asserts $L_B = 1_B$ almost everywhere. Since $A$ has positive measure, let us choose $x_0 \in A$ with $L_A(x_0) =1$. In particular, there exists $r_0 > 0$ so small that $m(A \cap (x_0-r, x_0+r)) \ge \frac{2r}{2} = r$ for all $0 < r < r_0$.

Now let $y \in \mathbb{R}$ be arbitrary. I will show $L_{A-C}(y) > 0$. Choose any positive $r < r_0$. Since $C$ is dense, we may choose $q \in C$ such that $|(y+q)-x_0| < r/2$. This means that $(x_0 - r/2, x_0 + r/2) \subset (y+q-r, y+q+r)$. So we have $$\begin{align*} m((A-C) \cap (y-r, y+r)) &\ge m(A-q \cap (y-r, y+r)) \\ &= m(A \cap (y+q-r, y+q+r)) \\ &\ge m(A \cap (x_0 - r/2, x_0 + r/2)) \\ &\ge \frac{r}{2}. \end{align*}$$ Since $r < r_0$ was arbitrary, this shows $L_{A-C}(y) \ge \frac{1}{4}$. Since $y$ was arbitrary, $L_{A-C} > 0$ everywhere. Since $1_{A-C} = L_{A-C}$ almost everywhere, $A-C$ has full measure. In particular $m((A-C) \cap [0,1]) = 1$.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.