This question is in the spirit of another older question.

We say that a poset $(P,\leq)$ is *Priestley-topologizable* if there is a topology $\tau$ on $P$ such that $(P,\leq,\tau)$ is a Priestley space.

Is it true that a poset $(P,\leq)$ is Priestley-topologizable if and only if all its connected components are Priestley-topologizable?