The first published version of the Grothendieck-Riemann-Roch theorem, GRR for short, was written in the form $$ \operatorname{ch}(f_!\alpha).\operatorname{Td}(Y) = f_*\left(\operatorname{ch}(\alpha).\operatorname{Td}(X)\right) $$ for $f\colon X\to Y$ and $\alpha\in K(X),$ where of course $\operatorname{Td}(X)=\operatorname{td}(\mathscr T_X).$ However it seems to me that the vast majority of later publications, most notably Fulton's Intersection theory, the formulation $$ \operatorname{ch}(f_!\alpha) = f_*\left(\operatorname{ch}(\alpha).\operatorname{td}(\mathscr T_f)\right) $$ is used, where $\mathscr T_f$ is the relative tangent sheaf or something similar to it (the vitual tangent sheaf etc.).
Q1: Why is the second formulation preferable?
I would think the first one is better as it does not only measure to what extent the chern character fails to be a natural transformation between the covariant K-homology and Chow homology functors, but actually shows a canonical way how to modify it to be one.
Q2: Are the two formulations equivalent?
Surely they are when we are discussing proper maps between sonsingular quasprojective schemes over a field, but how about in more general contexts? I would think they are always equivalent, by the virue of the multiplicativity of the Todd character and the projection formula, but I am very likely missing something.