Consider on $(0,T)\times \Omega$, $\Omega$ a bounded domain $$u_t(t,x) - a(u(t,x))\Delta u(t,x) = f(t,x)$$ $$u|_{\partial\Omega} = 0$$ where $a$ is real-valued and satisfies $C_1 \leq a(r) \leq C_2$ for all $r$ where both constants are strictly positive. Assume $f$ is as smooth as needed.
We know that $u \in L^2(0,T;H^1)$ with $u_t \in L^2(0,T;H^{-1})$.
Is it also true that $u_t \in L^2(0,T;L^2) = L^2(Q)$ (and thus also $\Delta u \in L^2(Q)$)?
I was under the impression that this is true only when one knows something about the differentiability of $t \mapsto a(u(t,x))$. However, I am informed this is not necessary an assumption. Could someone sketch a proof or refer me to a source? Thanks.