The first thing to say is that for a statement to be independent
of some axioms means really two things, namely, that it is
consistent with those axioms, and also that the negation of the
statement is consistent with those axioms. And typically, the
proofs of these two things are essentially unrelated. So in your
case, where the question appears to be open, I would say that it
is somewhat premature to speculate about full independence, when
instead you should speculate about the consistency of the
statement, or the consistency of the negation of the statement.
Independence occurs only when both of these situations are the
case.
The second thing to say is that of course almost every nontrivial
statement is independent of some very weak set of axioms; you
didn't specify which axiomatic system you were considering for
independence, but the nature of the independence proofs varies
quite a lot depending on the system that one is considering.
Often, statements that are proved independent of PA or some other
weak system are provable in ZFC, and similarly a statement that is
independent of ZFC might be provable from ZFC plus large cardinals
or some other strong system. No statement is independent in any
absolute sense, since in the theory taking a position on that
statement, it becomes settled. So the property of a statement
being independent is only sensible relative to a particular
axiomatic system.
Furthermore, I would say that the philosophical significance of an
independence result can vary quite a bit depending on the
background system for which it is established. To my way of
thinking, the fact that PA does not prove, say, that $\epsilon_0$ is
well-founded is less troubling philosophically than the fact that
CH and many other statements appears to be unsettled by ZFC plus
any of the known large cardinal axioms, which are consistency-wise
the strongest theories we know about, since in the first case we
might look upon it simply as a weakness of PA, but in the latter
case we appear to be left with some angst about what is the real
truth of the matter of CH.
So let me discuss the way a set theorist approaches the
possibility of independence. These are some of the questions that
come to mind when considering the possibility of independence.
Is the statement something that could be changed by forcing?
The overwhelming majority of known independence results in
mathematics are ZFC independence results established by the method
of forcing. Almost every natural nontrivial statement of infinite
combinatorics has been proved to be independent of ZFC by forcing,
and we have an enormous number of naturally occuring statements in
mathematics that are known to be independent of ZFC.
Nevertheless, in some cases, we can tell that a statement can
definitely not be shown independent by means of forcing,
simply because of its logical complexity. Specifically,
the Shoenfield absoluteness theorem shows that
any $\Sigma^1_2$ statement is invariant by forcing.
For example, in the case of your example, it appears to have
complexity $\Pi^1_1$, and this means that your statement is
invariant by forcing. Thus, it will not be possible to prove your
statement independent of ZFC by means of forcing. This doesn't
mean it isn't independent of ZFC, but it will not be proved
independent of ZFC in the way that most statements known to be
independent of ZFC have been proved to be independent of ZFC.
Is the statement something that become settled if a certain set
were to become countable? Any given set can become countable in
a forcing extension, and this situation often settles many
specific statements.
Is the statement settled by the continuum hypothesis, or by
Martin's Axiom? Many statements can be proved consistent by
being a consequence either of the continuum hypothesis or the
generalized continuum hypothesis or by Martin's axiom or other
axioms that are known to be relatively consistent with ZFC. This
is a very common way for non-set-theorists to establish
consistency results, by proving that the statement they are
considering are simply a consequence of statements about which
consistency results are already known.
Is the statement a consequence of the existence of large
cardinals? Does it imply the existence or consistency of large
cardinals? Sometimes it happens that the existence of large
cardinals can imply the truth or consistency of a given statement,
or a given statement implies the truth or consistency of lesser
large cardinals, and in this way the consistency of the statement
fits into the large cardinal hierarchy. This has consequences for
independence. For example, if every set of reals is Lebesgue
measurable, then $\omega_1$ is inaccessible to reals, and so the
consistency of that situation with ZF implies the consistency of
an inaccessible cardinal with ZFC. It follows that we cannot prove
even in Con(ZFC) itself (if this is consistent) that ZF does not
prove the existence of a Lebesgue non-measurable set. There are
many similar situations, where a given statement $\varphi$ might
imply the existence of an inner model with a given large cardinal,
and so it follows that the consistency of the statement cannot be
proved without assuming at least the consistency of that large
cardinal hypothesis.
For independence over weaker systems, such as the usual systems of
second-order number theory, there are another whole list of
questions that one would ask, and I would expect that some other
MO users might elaborate on this. For example, Is the statement
something that would be settled in the world in which everything
is computable? If not, the statement has a hope to be
independent of $\text{RCA}_0$, which is the universe of
second-order number theory consisting essentially of computable
sets only.
Ultimately, to prove that statement $\varphi$ is independent of
theory $T$ means to prove both that $T+\varphi$ is consistent and
also $T+\neg\varphi$, and so one needs to appreciate the depth and
subtlety of consistency proofs for the various theories $T$ that
might be under consideration.