Am I right that in fact, your question can be re-stated in the following way: if $q(z)$ is a holomorphic function in $D(1)$ such that the average of $|q|$ over this disc is equal to 1, then the average of $|q|$ over $D(r)$ is at most 1?
If yes, the first idea that comes to my mind would be to use that $|q|$ is subharmonic. Then you can proceed in two ways:
1) For a subharmonic function, if you average it w.r.t. a measure and then diffuse this measure, the average changes non-decreasingly. So -- you can launch a Brownian motion with the initial condition chosen w.r.t. the uniform measure on $D(r)$, and stop it in a (Markovian) stopping time chosen in such a way that the new distribution is uniform on $D(1)$ (a Skorokhod-like problem). There is a way of doing so, but it could be overcomplicated to write down.
2) The previous part brings into attention that the family of averages on $D(r)$ should be non-decreasing in $r$. And to show this, it suffices to show that an average on the radius $r$ circle is non-decreasing in $r$. And to compare these two averages, the previous arguments work quite well: you launch a BM from any point of an inner circle, and let it stop once it intersects the outer one. The rotational symmetry implies that the exit points are also distributed uniformly; and whatever you gain during this random walk (that is, the integral of $\Delta |q|\ge 0$ w.r.t. the expectation of the occupation measure) is the difference between the two.