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I'm trying to find the exact asymptotics of a sum:

$$A = \sum^n_{i=0} \begin{pmatrix} 2n \\ i \end{pmatrix} x^{i} y^{2n-i} $$

as $n\rightarrow\infty$. Here $x,y$ are complex numbers, $|x|\leq1, |y|\leq1$. I also have $|x+y|<1$ and $|4xy|\leq1$. My strategy is to write the sum as an integral. Rewrite this sum as: $$ A = (x+y)^{2n} - \sum^{n-1}_{i=0} \begin{pmatrix} 2n \\ i \end{pmatrix} x^{2n-i} y^i \quad\quad\quad\quad (1) $$

Note that this is a remainder for the $(n-1)$-order Taylor expansion so can use the integral formula for the remainder:

$$ A = \begin{pmatrix} 2n \\ n \end{pmatrix} y^n \int^1_0 (x+(1-t)y)^n nt^{n-1} dt $$

Changing variables and introducing $z=x/y$ get:

$$ A = \begin{pmatrix} 2n \\ n \end{pmatrix} (xy)^n \int^1_0 (1+(1-u^{\frac{1}{n}})z)^n du $$

In this integral the integrand converges to $u^{-z}$. Then for $Re(z)<1$ the integral converges and I get (using Stirling's formula) the following asymptotic expression:

$$ A \sim \frac{(4xy)^n}{\sqrt{n}}\frac{1}{1-z} $$

On the other hand, I can approximate the second term in $(1)$ as the Taylor remainder thus interchanging the roles of $x,y$ and then get for $Re(1/z)<1$ that

$$ A \sim (x+y)^{2n} - \frac{(4xy)^n}{\sqrt{n}}\frac{1}{1-1/z} $$

However, now I have something very strange: when both $Re(z)<1$ and $Re(1/z)<1$ are valid, both asymptotic expressions have to agree, which means that it must be $|x+y|^2 < |4xy|$. But it's clearly not true - take for example $x=-1/2$ and $y=1/100$ which satisfy the conditions on $Re(z)$ and $Re(1/z)$. Where have I made a mistake?

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  • $\begingroup$ The most obvious mistake is that pointwise convergence of the integrand alone is not enough for the convergence of the integral. Think of $u\in[2^{-n},2\cdot 2^{-n}]$ and $z=100i$ or something else like that. $\endgroup$
    – fedja
    Commented Nov 26, 2014 at 2:13
  • $\begingroup$ incidentally, some time ago I was wondering how to dominate that integrand: mathoverflow.net/questions/185839/… $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 26, 2014 at 10:33
  • $\begingroup$ @PietroMajer yes, I am still thinking about that problem and grateful for your help. I've thought heuristically that perhaps when the integral of the limit of the integrand converges (i.e. when $Re(z)<1$) then that gives the condition on the convergence of the integral. But of course, it's not a proof - for that one would need to apply something like dominated convergence as you suggested. Incidentally, trying to approximate the sum numerically in Mathematica shows that it indeed asymptotically goes as either $(4xy)^n$ or $(x+y)^{2n}$. $\endgroup$
    – teagut
    Commented Nov 26, 2014 at 15:20

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