7
$\begingroup$

$\mathsf{fReR}_0$ is the set-theoretical system whose axioms consist of:

(1) Axiom of extensionality: $\forall z\in x\ (z\in y)\wedge\forall z\in y\ (z\in x)\rightarrow x=y$

(2) Axiom of empty set: $\varnothing\in\mathrm{V}$

(3) Axiom of pair set: $\{x,y\}\in\mathrm{V}$

(4) Axiom of union: $\bigcup x\in\mathrm{V}$

(5) Axiom schema of flat restricted replacement:

$\ \ \forall x\in a\ \exists!y\ (\phi(x,y)\wedge y\subseteq c)\rightarrow\{\ y\ |\ \exists x\in a\ (\phi(x,y)\wedge y\subseteq c)\ \}\in\mathrm{V}\ \ ,\ \ $where $\phi(x,y)$ is $\Delta_0$ .


It is easy to see that the following axiom schema can be proved in $\mathsf{fReR}_0$ :

$\Delta_0$-separation : $x\cap A\in\mathrm{V}\ \ ,\ \ $where $A$ is $\Delta_0$ .

Gandy [1] and Mathias [2] all assert (without proof) that the following statement can be proved in $\mathsf{fReR}_0$ :

$a\times b\in\mathrm{V}$

I don't think this assertion is trivial, moreover, I conjecture that it is false. I am based on the following observations:

(i) If we strengthen the axiom schema of flat restricted replacement to the following schema, then the existence of cartesian products follows trivially:

$\ \ \forall x_1\in a\ \forall x_2\in a\ \exists!y\ (\phi(x_1,x_2,y)\wedge y\subseteq c)\rightarrow\{\ y\ |\ \exists x_1\in a\ \exists x_2\in a\ (\phi(x_1,x_2,y)\wedge y\subseteq c)\ \}\in\mathrm{V}$ , where $\phi(x_1,x_2,y)$ is $\Delta_0$ .

Since we can form successively the sets $\{\{x_1,x_2\}\ |\ x_1\in a\wedge x_2\in a\}$ and $\{(x_1,x_2)\ |\ x_1\in a\wedge x_2\in a\}$ , and then form $a\times b$ .

(ii) Since there is only one variable $x$ range over $a$ in the original schema (of flat restricted replacement), I can only form the sets $\{\{x,z\}\ |\ x\in a\}$ and $\{(x,z)\ |\ x\in a\}$ , where $z$ is a parameter. This parameter can't be eliminated since I can't find a set $c$ (includes $a\times b$ ) in order to form $\{\{\{x,z\}\ |\ x\in a\}\ |\ z\in b\}$ .

My question is that whether the existence of the cartesian product of two sets can be proved in $\mathsf{fReR}_0$ .

References:

[1] R. O. Gandy, Set-theoretic functions for elementary syntax, in Proceedings of Symposia in Pure Mathematics, 13, Part II, ed. T. Jech, American Mathematical Society, 1974, 103–126.

[2] A. R. D. Mathias, Weak systems of Gandy, Jensen and Devlin, in Set Theory: Centre de Recerca Matematica, Barcelona 2003-4 , edited by Joan Bagaria and Stevo Todorcevic, Trends in Mathematics, Birkhauser Verlag, Basel, 2006, 149–224.

$\endgroup$
3
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Where exactly in [2] did you find the assertion that fReR0 proves the existence of cartesian products? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 23, 2014 at 15:08
  • $\begingroup$ Mathias [2], p.14 . He says that "$\mathsf{GJ}$ is a subsystem of $\mathsf{fReR}$ would follow from the theory of companions". But $\mathsf{GJ}$ can prove the existence of cartesian products (there is an right arrow above $v$ in the axiom schema of rudimentary replacement(see page 6)). $\endgroup$
    – Sencodian
    Commented Oct 23, 2014 at 16:05
  • $\begingroup$ Mathias doesn't say that " $\mathsf{GJ}_0$ is a subsystem of $\mathsf{fReR}_0$ ". So he indeed asserts a weaker proposition ($\mathsf{fReR}$ can prove the existence of cartesian products). $\endgroup$
    – Sencodian
    Commented Oct 23, 2014 at 22:33

0

You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .