I apologize if this is a trivial matter for the analysts out there, but I looked this up in a number of books (e.g., H. Brezis, J. Wloka) and could not find a satisfying discussion, one that would settle my question.
Recall that a Hilbert (or Gelfand) triple consists of two Hilbert spaces $V, H$ such that one has continuous, injective and dense inclusions $V \hookrightarrow H \hookrightarrow V^*$.
Given one such triple, one can define the Sobolev space $W \equiv W^{1,2}([0, 1]; V, V^*)$, which is the space of all functions $u : [0, 1] \rightarrow V$ having a weak derivative $u' : [0, 1] \rightarrow V^*$.
Finally, one has the Sobolev embedding theorem, saying that $W$ embeds continuously in $C([0, 1]; H)$.
My question: since $H$ does not play any role in the definition of $W$, why is the Sobolev embedding theorem stated in that way?
It seems to me that $V \hookrightarrow V \hookrightarrow V^*$ is always a Hilbert triple, and then one gets for free that $W$ actually embeds in $C([0, 1]; V)$, which seems to be a stronger statement. Am I missing something?
Thanks.