Let $\{ B_i \}_{i=1}^n$ be a set of $n$ ball in the unit cube $C$ of dimension $d$.
If I want to estimate $$ \frac{ \lambda \left( \cup B_i \right) }{\lambda\left( C \right) }, \tag{1} $$ where $\lambda$ is Lebesgue Measure, is it ok to sample uniformly in the cube then count the number of point which fall in any ball?
I ask, because I saw a question saying that estimating the volume of a convex body is hard, and one needs special algorithm.
Is the estimation of (1) similar to the Dyer, Frieze, Kannan context, and a naive Monte Carlo is doomed to failed? If so why?
From some numerical tests, it seems to work.
Especially that I know in advance the volume of $\cup B_i$ is at least half the volume of the cube.