Citing (almost) A question about ordinal definable real numbers
If ZFC (Zermelo-Fraenkel set theory with the Axiom of Choice) is consistent, does it remain consistent when the following statement is added to it: "There exists a denumerably infinite and ordinal definable set of real numbers, not all of whose elements are ordinal definable"
1) If we drop of real numbers then, as mentioned elsewhere, a positive answer readily comes in the form of $S=\{X,Y\}$ in the Sacks$\times$Sacks extension $L[x,y]$ of $L$, where $X$ is the $L$-degree of the real $x$ and $Y$ is the $L$-degree of the real $y$, so $X,Y$ are sets of reals.
2) As Ali Enayat explained elsewhere, a symmetric extension of $L$ on the base of a Jensen 1970 forcing yields a positive answer with the key absence of AC: it gives a model of ZF.
In the reference above, some approaches (eg, based with the Mathias forcing) were outlined. Has there been any further development possibly with a full answer of the original question?