9
$\begingroup$

Suppose that $P(t)$ is a one-parameter family of rank 2 self-adjoint projections on $\mathbb{C}^n$ that vary analytically in the real parameter $t \in [0,1]$. I claim that there must exist a vector $x \in \mathbb{C}^n$ such that $P(t)x \neq 0$ for all $t$.

In other words, I am hoping to prove that $\bigcup_{t \in [0,1]} \mathrm{ker}\, P(t) \neq \mathbb{C}^n$. This seems like it is essentially a space-filling curve type argument, and hence the requirement that $P(t)$ be differentiable is probably important (in my example, $P(t)$ is analytic in $t$). Does anyone know a reference that would provide a simple proof of this claim?

$\endgroup$
4
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ If $P$ is $C^1$ then isn't it just Sard's theorem ? $\endgroup$ Jul 8, 2014 at 15:41
  • $\begingroup$ Maybe it's easier to prove after blowing up at the origin? $\endgroup$ Jul 8, 2014 at 16:53
  • $\begingroup$ Applying Sard's theorem is an interesting idea, but I don't see how it can be directly applied to $P(t)$. What function and what critical values did you have in mind? $\endgroup$
    – Brian Lins
    Jul 8, 2014 at 17:10
  • $\begingroup$ Very close to mathoverflow.net/questions/139593 $\endgroup$ Jul 9, 2014 at 20:09

2 Answers 2

5
$\begingroup$

Let $Q(t):\mathbb C^n\to\mathbb C^n$ be the orthogonal projection onto $\text{ker}(P(t))$. Then $t\mapsto Q(t)$ is as differentiable as $P$ was. Now the mapping $(t,x)\mapsto Q(t)(x)$ has rank at most $2n-2+1<2n$. Apply Sard's theorem: The set of regular values is Lebesgue nearly everything. Take a regular value $y$. It cannot be in the image, and thus is in no kernel of $P(t)$ for any $t$.

$\endgroup$
0
$\begingroup$

I assume $P$ varies analytically as in the body of the question, I do not know how to tackle the case where $P$ is just differentiable, I also read rank 2 as real rank though of course the problem is even easier if the rank is complex.

The map $\operatorname {ker}:A\rightarrow\operatorname {Gr}_{2n-2}\Bbb R^{2n}$ where $A\subseteq End(\Bbb R^{2n})$ are the endomorphisms of rank $2$ is $C^\infty$. Clearly the rank of $D(\operatorname {ker}\circ P)$ is less than or equal to 1. Consider the tautological bundle over the Grassmanian $T$ and the projection map $g:T\rightarrow \Bbb R^{2n}$. Since $T$ is locally trivial and second countable, we have $T$ is a countable union of spaces diffeomorphic to $\operatorname {Gr}_{n-2}\Bbb R^{2n}\times \Bbb R^{2n-2}=M_n$. Consider $f:\Bbb R\times\Bbb R^{2n-2} \rightarrow M_n$, $f_n(x,y)= (\operatorname {ker}\circ P(x),y)$. The rank of $D(g\circ f_n)$ is less than or equal to $2n-1$, so by Sard's theorem we have $\operatorname{img}(g\circ f_n)$ is measure zero in $\Bbb R^{2n}$. So $\bigcup_n\operatorname{img}(g\circ f_n)=\bigcup_{t \in [0,1]} \mathrm{ker}\, P(t)$ is a countable union of measure zero sets hence its complement is non-empty.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.