The MDRP theorem – which answers Hilbert's tenth problem in the negative – says:
There is no algorithm for determining whether an arbitrary diophantine equation has a solution.
In other words: there is no algorithm for determining whether an arbitrary diophantine equation $p(n_1,\dots,n_k,x)=0$ has a non-empty solution set
$$N = \lbrace x \in \mathbb{N}\ |\ (\exists n_1,\dots,n_k)\ p(n_1,\dots,n_k,x)=0 \rbrace$$
There are essentially four ways for a diophantine equation to have a non-empty solution set:
a finite non-empty solution set $N$
which necessarily has an infinite complement $\overline{N} = \mathbb{N} \setminus N$
(type $\tau_{1/\omega}$)an infinite solution set with an infinite complement
(type $\tau_{\omega/\omega}$)an infinite solution set with a finite complement
(type $\tau_{\omega/1}$)an infinite solution set with an empty complement
(type $\tau_{\omega/0}$)
Accordingly the MRDP theorem says:
There is no algorithm for determining whether an arbitrary diophantine equation $p(n_1,\dots,n_k,x)=0$ is not of type $\tau_{0/\omega}$ (i.e. does not have an empty solution set).
But this is equivalent with:
There is no algorithm for determining whether an arbitrary diophantine equation $p(n_1,\dots,n_k,x)=0$ is of type $\tau_{1/\omega}$ or of type $\tau_{\omega/\omega}$ or of type $\tau_{\omega/1}$ or of type $\tau_{\omega/0}$.
My first question is:
($*$) Is it decidable (or semi-decidable) whether the solution set of an diophantine equation is of type $\tau_{\omega/0}$, i.e. for all $x \in \mathbb{N}$ it holds that $$(\exists n_1,\dots,n_k)\ p(n_1,\dots,n_k,x)=0$$
Naively, one might believe that the answer is "yes" because
Conjecture: The solution set of an diophantine equation $p(n_1,\dots,n_k,x)=0$ is of type $\tau_{\omega/0}$ iff there are $n_i, k$ and another polynomial $p'(n_1,\dots,n_k,x)$ such that $$p(n_1,\dots,n_k,x) = p'(n_1,\dots,n_k,x)(x-n_i)^k$$
Because in this case $x$ – via $n_i$ – can take every value. But even when this conjecture is too naive and false, the question ($*$) might be answered in the positive in another way.
But if the question ($*$) is to be answered in the negative, this post stops here.
Otherwise it continues. In this case we can omit the type $\tau_{\omega/0}$ from the disjunction above and obtain:
There is no algorithm for determining whether an arbitrary diophantine equation $p(n_1,\dots,n_k,x)=0$ is of type $\tau_{1/\omega}$ or of type $\tau_{\omega/\omega}$ or of type $\tau_{\omega/1}$.
And another question arises naturally:
($*\!*$) Is it decidable (or semi-decidable) whether the solution set of an diophantine equation is of type $\tau_{\omega/1}$, i.e. for all but finitely many $x \in \mathbb{N}$ it holds that $$(\exists n_1,\dots,n_k)\ p(n_1,\dots,n_k,x)=0$$
And so on. Which results in the question:
Can the undecidability of a diophantine equation to be not of type $\tau_{0/\omega}$ be reduced to the undecidability of a diophantine equation to (positively) be of another type?