Background
I am reviewing some category theory, which I did not learn too well the first time around. One text I am using is Mac Lane's. Near the beginning of the chapter on adjunctions (pg 80), he gives the basic definition of an adjunction $<F,G,\phi>$ ($G$ right-adjoint to $F$) in terms of the natural isomorphism $\phi$: $$ \phi_{x,a}:A(Fx,a)\cong X(x,Ga) $$ Of course, this is not explicitly defined in general, since it depends on the particular adjunction.
Anyway, just on the next page, he begins to motivate and establish the definition of the unit, $\eta_x$. Taking $a=Fx$ above, we have $$ \phi_{x,Fx}:A(Fx,Fx)\cong X(x,GFx). $$ So, Mac Lane defines $$ \eta_x=\phi(1_{Fx}):x\rightarrow GFx $$ and claims that by "Yoneda's Proposition III.2.1, this $\eta_x$ is a universal arrow".
My confusion begins here. In terms of the variables we have used above, it states that, given a functor $G:A\rightarrow X$, an arrow $\eta_x:x\rightarrow GFx$ is universal from $x$ to $GF$ if and only if the function specified by the mapping $$ f':Fx\rightarrow a \quad\longmapsto \quad Gf'\circ \eta_x $$ is a natural bijection (in $a$): $$ A(Fx,a)\cong X(x,Ga) $$
Note that I abridged slightly the proposition, taking the relevant part.
Question
Our adjunction isomorphism $\phi$ does not necessarily involve the assignment above. (Or am I missing something?) So how can Mac Lane use this proposition to establish the universality of $\eta_x$?
Thanks, sorry if it is something trivial.