I am confronted with the following problem:
If $\rho : \text{SL}_2(\mathbb{Z}) \to \text{GL}_{\mathbb{C}}(V)$ is a finite dimensional representation such that $\text{ker}(\rho)$ contains the principal congruence group
$$\Gamma(N) = \{ M \in \text{SL}_2(\mathbb{Z}) : M \equiv \text{id} \mod N\}$$
(i.e. $\rho$ can be viewed as a representation of the finite group $\text{SL}_2(\mathbb{Z}_N)$ where I write $\mathbb{Z}_N = \mathbb{Z}/N\mathbb{Z}$ ) then we can endow $V$ with a scalar product making this representation unitary (or we can assume this right away). Hence, if we put $T = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}$ then $\rho(T)$ can be diagonalized. As $T^N \in \Gamma(N)$, the eigenvalues are of the form $e^{2 \pi i s/N}, s=0,1,...,N-1$.
Problem: What eigenspaces do really occur?
Let us take $N$ above to be minimal then I suspect that there should be at least one nontrivial eigenspace correpsonding to $e^{2 \pi i s/N}$ for some $\text{gcd}(s,N) = 1$.
* Question 1: Is this assertion true? *
I think that I know how to prove it but it seems like cheating to me: Let us take $N=p$ to be a prime for brevity. If the eigenspaces for all $e^{2 \pi i s/N}$ with $s\neq 0$ disapper then in fact, $T$ acts trivial. I want to conclude that $p$ was not the level (but in fact, $1$ is the level). We can view the representation as a continuous representation
$$ \text{SL}_2(\mathbf{Z}_p) \times V \to V$$
(here $\mathbf{Z}_p$ are the $p$-adic integers). In $\text{SL}_2(\mathbf{Z}_p)$, the closure of the normal subgroup generated by $T^M$ is the $p$-adic version of $\Gamma(M)$, i.e. since $T$ acts trivial, also the $p$-adic version of $\Gamma(1)$ acts trivial (which is all of $\text{SL}_2(\mathbf{Z}_p)$).
* Question 2: Does this proof make sense or am I overlooking something? *
I am confused, because I am not sure whether in general, the normal subgroup generated by $T^M$ is $\Gamma(M)$, so all that makes the proof work out is that we introduced some new structural "things" (like topology)...
Thanks in advance.
FW