4
$\begingroup$

Let $X$ be a regular, projective flat scheme over $Spec(\mathbb{Z})$, of relative dimension $d$, and look at the $L$-function $L(X, s)$, that is, the Hasse-Weil zeta function completed by the Gamma factors.

Conjecturally, it satisfies a functional equation $$ L(X, s)=\varepsilon(X) A(X)^{-s} L(X, d+1-s) $$ where $\varepsilon(X)$ and $A(X)$ (the so called conductor) are real numbers which can be defined unconditionally.

1) How is the conductor defined?

2) It is a theorem or essentially part of the definition that $X$ has everywhere good reduction if and only if $|A(X)|=1$?

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

3
$\begingroup$

1) The conductor measures ramification in the Galois representations of $X$. It is the product (or alternating product?) of the Artin conductors of all these Galois representations.

2) No. Very much not so. $A(X)$ only measures bad reduction in the Galois representation of $X$, or it is a property only of the $L$-function. But different varieties can share the same Galois representation and $L$-function, and some of the varieties can have good reduction and some not. The simplest example is genus $0$ curves. These all have the same $L$-fucntion, and so the same conductor, $1$, but for every finite set of primes there is a genus $0$ curve with bad reduction at those priems.

$\endgroup$
5
  • $\begingroup$ Is the conductor a motivic invariant? $\endgroup$ Jan 25, 2014 at 0:23
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ I think so. Also, the $L$-function is a motivic invariant, and the equation in the question enables you to derive the conductor from the $L$-function, so it had better be. $\endgroup$
    – Will Sawin
    Jan 25, 2014 at 0:52
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for your answer Will. So the ramification of the Galois representation does not say nothing at all about the bad reduction of the variety? $\endgroup$
    – conduc
    Jan 25, 2014 at 9:32
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ If the variety has good reduction then the Galois representation is unramified. The converse holds in some special cases (e.g. for abelian varieties), but it does not hold in general. $\endgroup$ Jan 25, 2014 at 10:33
  • $\begingroup$ @conduc See Chandan Singh Dalawat's notes arxiv.org/abs/math/0605326 for many examples. There are also several other relevant questions/answers on MO that you can find on these matters. For instance, mathoverflow.net/questions/133840/… $\endgroup$ Jan 27, 2014 at 10:04

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.