2
$\begingroup$

I want to know whether there is some transformation between $_2F_1(a,b;c;x)$ and $_2F_1(a',b';c';x(1-x))$.

Here is an example called the Kummer quadratic transformation, which may be known to most of you. But it involves $x$ and $4x(1-x)$.

http://archive.lib.msu.edu/crcmath/math/math/k/k154.htm

Thanks.

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ It seems unlikely, but it would be difficult to prove that there is no such transformation. $\endgroup$
    – Ira Gessel
    Dec 13, 2013 at 17:26

0

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.