EDIT: The answer now applies to arbitrary topologies, using an idea by Pietro Majer from the comments.
Proposition: There are no topologies $\tau_0,\tau_1$ on $\mathbb R$ such that $f\colon\mathbb R\to\mathbb R$ is uniformly continuous in the Euclidean metric iff $f\colon(\mathbb R,\tau_0)\to(\mathbb R,\tau_1)$ is continuous.
Proof:
$\tau_1$ cannot be indiscrete (lest all functions are uniformly continuous), hence we can fix a $\tau_1$-closed set $F$ and points $a\in F$, $b\notin F$. For every Euclidean closed set $A$ and $c>0$, let $f_c(x)=a+c\operatorname{dist}(x,A)$. Then $f_c$ is uniformly continuous, hence continuous from $(\mathbb R,\tau_0)$ to $(\mathbb R,\tau_1)$, hence the $\tau_0$-closed set $f_c^{-1}(F)$ includes $A$ and excludes all points of Euclidean distance $(b-a)/c$ from $A$. The intersection of such sets for all $c$ is just $A$. This shows that $A$ is $\tau_0$-closed, i.e., $\tau_0$ refines the Euclidean topology.
Let $f\colon\mathbb R\to\mathbb R$ be a Euclidean-continuous but not uniformly continuous function, such as $f(x)=x^2$. For every $n>0$, $f_n=f\restriction[-n,n]$ can be extended to a uniformly continuous function on $\mathbb R$. By assumption, this function is continuous from $(\mathbb R,\tau_0)$ to $(\mathbb R,\tau_1)$, hence $f_n$ is continuous from $([-n,n],\tau_0)$ to $(\mathbb R,\tau_1)$. Since $\tau_0$ refines the Euclidean topology, every point has a $\tau_0$-open neighbourhood included in some $[-n,n]$, thus $f=\bigcup_nf_n$ is continuous from $(\mathbb R,\tau_0)$ to $(\mathbb R,\tau_1)$. However, it is not uniformly continuous in the Euclidean metric, a contradiction.