My question is about terminology:
Do you know why stationary sets were named such?
Going over the following MO question about the intuition behind stationary sets, the only compelling argument I can think of is Fodor's lemma.
Is this the reason?
My question is about terminology:
Do you know why stationary sets were named such?
Going over the following MO question about the intuition behind stationary sets, the only compelling argument I can think of is Fodor's lemma.
Is this the reason?
In Infinite Combinatorics, in: Handbook of the History of Logic, 6. Sets and Extensions in the Twentieth Century, p 226, footnote 214, Jean Larson states that the term was first used in G. Bloch: Sur les ensembles stationnaires de nombres ordinaux et les suites distinguees de fonctions regressives, Comptes Rendus Acad. Sci Paris, 236(1953), 265-268. The reason for the name was probably Neumer's theorem, a weaker and earlier form of Fodor's theorem.