1
$\begingroup$

Suppose $G$ is a locally finite group such that $G=\bigcup_{i=1}^\infty S_i$, where $S_i$ is a finite group and $S_i \triangleleft S_{i+1}$ for all $i \in \mathbb{N}$. Let $P$ be a Sylow (maximal with respect to inclusion) $p$-subgroup of the group $G$. For each $i \in \mathbb{N}$ put $P_i=S_i \cap P$. Then $P_i$ is a Sylow $p$-subgroup of $S_i$ for all $i \in \mathbb{N}$. Or not?

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

Yes. Fix $i$. For $n\ge i$, let $L_n$ be a $p$-Sylow of $S_n$ containing $P_n$. Note that $S_i$ is subnormal in $S_n$. By the lemma below, $L_n$, the intersection $M_n=L_n\cap S_i$ is a $p$-Sylow of $S_i$. Now there exists an infinite set $N$ of $n$ such that the Sylow $M=M_n$ does not depend on $n\in N$. Since $\langle P_n,M\rangle$ is a $p$-group for all $n$ and $P=\bigcup P_n$, we deduce that $\langle P,M\rangle=\bigcup\langle P_n,M\rangle$ (increasing union) is a $p$-group. By maximality, we deduce that $M\subset P$, QED.

[Lemma: if $G$ is a finite group, $H$ a subnormal subgroup and $P$ a $p$-Sylow of $G$ then $P\cap H$ is a $p$-Sylow of $H$.

Indeed, by an obvious induction we can reduce to the case when $N$ is normal, let $Q$ be a $p$-Sylow of $H$. Then $Q$ is contained in a $p$-Sylow of $G$, that is, a conjugate $gPg^{-1}$. So $g^{-1}Qg\subset P\cap H$ (because $H$ is normal); by cardinality this is also a $p$-Sylow of $H$ and the lemma is proved.]

$\endgroup$
6
  • $\begingroup$ You seem to be assuming that $S_i\triangleleft S_j$ for all $j>i$, which does not automatically follow from the case $j=i+1$ as in the question. However, I suspect that the OP meant to assume the stronger version. $\endgroup$ Jun 25, 2013 at 21:49
  • $\begingroup$ @Neil Strickland. Yes, $S_i$ is normal olny in $S_{i+1}$. In other words, $S_i$ is subnormal in $S_j$ for $j>i$. But it's O.K., the Lemma is valid in that case too. And I proved something similar too. But... $\endgroup$
    – user35603
    Jun 25, 2013 at 22:40
  • $\begingroup$ But why $M$ does not depend on $n$? $\endgroup$
    – user35603
    Jun 25, 2013 at 22:57
  • $\begingroup$ @user35603: As there are only finitely many possibilities for $M_n$ ($\le S_i$), at least one of them shows up infinitely times often. $\endgroup$
    – j.p.
    Jun 26, 2013 at 6:29
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks to all. I think you are right. $\endgroup$
    – user35603
    Jun 26, 2013 at 11:24

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.