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I had tried to help someone on math.StackExchange to prove the identity:

$$ (1-Tr(A))^2+\sum_{1\le i\le j\le 3}(a_{ij}-a_{ji})^2=4$$

I guess you could argue the left hand side is independent of basis. Then we can diagonalize. But I couldn't come up with an invariant way of expressing the 2nd term.

Someone came up with $(1-\mathrm{Tr}\\,A)^2- \frac{1}{2}\mathrm{Tr}\left[(A-A^T)^2\right]=4$ and prove it.

This look a bit Pythagoras' theorem since $1 - Tr A = 2 \cos \varphi$ so the other term must be $\sum_{1\le i\le j\le 3}(a_{ij}-a_{ji})^2 = 2 \sin \varphi$ which I also couldn't prove.

Is this sum related to a direct sum of representations of SO(3)?

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First, I think there is a typo in your question. Maybe you mean $\sum_{1\le i\le j\le 3}(a_{ij}-a_{ji})^2 =4\sin^2\phi$?

Anyway, I think it is easier to work out these identities in $\mathsf{SU}(2)$, the double cover of $\mathsf{SO}(3)$. Up to conjugation, $A=\mathrm{diag}(e^{i\phi},e^{-i\phi})$ in $\mathsf{SU}(2)$. When projecting to $\mathsf{SO}(3)$, one has to add 1 to the trace since the covering map sends $A$ into $\mathsf{SO}(2)\times 1$. So $(1-\mathrm{tr}A)^2=(1-(1+e^{-i\phi}+e^{i\phi}))^2=4\cos^2\phi.$

Since the transpose of $A$ corresponds in $\mathsf{SU}(2)$ to the inverse $A^{-1}=\mathrm{diag}(e^{-i\phi},e^{i\phi})$ which simultaneously diagonalizes with $A$, the other part is $-\frac{1}{2}\mathrm{tr}(A-A^{-1})^2 =-\frac{1}{2}\mathrm{tr}(\mathrm{diag}(e^{i\phi},e^{-i\phi})-\mathrm{diag}(e^{-i\phi},e^{i\phi}))^2$ $=-\frac{1}{2}\mathrm{tr}\mathrm{diag}(2i\sin\phi,-2i\sin\phi)^2=-\frac{1}{2}\mathrm{tr}\mathrm{diag}(-4\sin^2\phi,-4\sin^2\phi)=4\sin^2\phi.$ Note that we did not have to add 1 to the trace as in the first paragraph since we introduced a 1 in each of $A$ and $A^{-1}$ and subtracted them; resulting in the 1's canceling.

Thus, the Pythagorean theorem gives the result $(1-\mathrm{tr}A)^2-\frac{1}{2}\mathrm{tr}(A-A^{T})^2=4\cos^2\phi+4\sin^2\phi=4.$

Lastly, $\sum_{1\le i\le j\le 3}(a_{ij}-a_{ji})^2=-\frac{1}{2}\mathrm{tr}(A-A^{T})^2$ for any 3x3 matrix. This follows from an easy computation observing that $A-A^T$ is anti-symmetric.

EDIT: Just in case it was not clear. The direct answer to your question is "no". The sum is artificial in the problem since it holds for any 3x3 matrix; it has nothing to do with orthogonal matrices.

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  • $\begingroup$ I cannot quite follow. The result does not hold for all $3\times 3$ matrices. The zero matrix is a counterexample, because then $1=4$. Or did you mean another result ? $\endgroup$ Commented May 26, 2013 at 17:33
  • $\begingroup$ The sum holds for any 3x3 matrix is what I said, not the entire identity. The point here is that the identity comes from two identities in SU(2) and they are put together with the Pythagorean theorem. Then the second identity is obfuscated with a general identity in matrix coordinates that holds for any 3x3 matrix. Does that clarify the situation? $\endgroup$ Commented May 26, 2013 at 18:06
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    $\begingroup$ Yes, this clarifies the situation. The more interesting aspect seems to me the "entire identity", for which you have a nice proof. $\endgroup$ Commented May 26, 2013 at 18:25
  • $\begingroup$ thats what I wanted to know... does this really have anything to do with Orthogonal groups? I guess not. $\endgroup$ Commented May 27, 2013 at 13:20
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Using the parametrization $$ A= \begin{pmatrix} a^2+b^2-c^2-d^2&2bc-2ad &2bd+2ac \cr 2bc+2ad &a^2-b^2+c^2-d^2&2cd-2ab \cr 2bd-2ac &2cd+2ab &a^2-b^2-c^2+d^2\\ \end{pmatrix}, $$

which comes from quaternions of unit length we have $$ (1-tr (A))^2-\frac{1}{2} tr ((A-A^t)^2)-4= $$

$$ (9a^2 + b^2 + c^2 + d^2 + 3)(a^2 + b^2 + c^2 + d^2 - 1)=0, $$ since $a^2+b^2+c^2+d^2=1$.

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