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Preliminaries

Suppose that $\Gamma$ is a simple (sufficiently smooth) closed curve in $\mathbb{R}^2$ with length $L$ and enclosing an area $A$. Suppose furthermore that $\gamma:[0,L]\rightarrow\mathbb{R}^2$ is a parametrization-by-arclength for $\Gamma$ so that $|\gamma '(s)|=1$ for every s, i.e.

$$L = \int_0^{L} |\gamma'(s)| $$

The total (absolute) curvature can be defined by

$$C = \int_0^{L} |\gamma''(s)| = \int_0^{L} \kappa(s)$$

It can be shown that $C\ge 2\pi$. Equality holds iff $\Gamma$ is convex.

The isoperimetry inequality

$$4\pi A\le L^2$$

(equality holds iff $\Gamma$ is a circle) can be stated using another derivative of $\gamma$

$$\Omega = \int_0^{L} ||\gamma''(s)|'| = \int_0^{L} |\kappa'(s)|$$

A closed curve $\Gamma$ is a circle $\mathsf{O}$ iff $\Omega = 0$. (Edit: Pietro correctly pointed out that the initial formula $\int_0^{L} |\gamma'''(s)|$ would not make sense.) This implies

$$\left(( L_{\Gamma} = L_{\mathsf{O}}) \wedge (C_{\Gamma} = C_{\mathsf{O}}) \wedge (\Omega_{\Gamma} \ge \Omega_{\mathsf{O}})\right) \rightarrow (A_{\Gamma} \le A_{\mathsf{O}})$$

for all closed curves $\Gamma$ and circles $\mathsf{O}$.

Question

I wonder if and how it could be shown that a generalization of the last proposition holds:

$$ \left((L_{\Gamma} = L_{\Gamma'}) \wedge (C_{\Gamma} = C_{\Gamma'}) \wedge (\Omega_{\Gamma} \ge \Omega_{\Gamma'})\right) \rightarrow (A_{\Gamma} \le A_{\Gamma'}) $$

for all closed curves $\Gamma, \Gamma'$, i.e. of two curves of the same length and the same absolute curvature the one with greater change rate of curvature has the smaller area.

How would this – probably using Fourier analysis – be shown for ellipses with the same perimeter?

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  • $\begingroup$ Is the formula for Ω what you really mean? Here Ω=0 implies γ′′′=0 , that is $\gamma(s)=as^2+bs+c$, right? $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 30, 2012 at 19:57
  • $\begingroup$ $\Omega = 0$ is supposed to mean "constant curvature". $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 30, 2012 at 20:58
  • $\begingroup$ Did I understand your question correctly (I edited it according to my understanding:-) ? $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 30, 2012 at 21:09
  • $\begingroup$ @Alexandre: Absolutely, thanks for the improvement! $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 31, 2012 at 10:48
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    $\begingroup$ Your formula for $\Omega$ is still not good. You are integrating a full derivative (and singularities are only at points where the curvature is zero), so the result is always 0. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 31, 2012 at 17:06

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