30
$\begingroup$

Related post: The post Possible new series for $\pi$ is about whether the identity is new, so to avoid confusion I was advised to ask this question separately.

I am looking for a proof of the following identity that does not require knowledge of physics: $$\pi = 4 + \sum_{n\ge1}\frac1{n!}\left(\frac1{n+\lambda}-\frac4{2n+1}\right)\left(\frac{(2n+1)^2}{4(n+\lambda)}-n\right)_{n-1}\tag1\label{474141_1}$$ for any $\operatorname{Re}\lambda>-1$ where $(x)_n= x(x+1)\cdots(x+n-1)$ is the Pochhammer symbol.

The current proof relies on various quantum field theory concepts. So far, only the case $\lambda=1/2$ is resolved, as the term inside the Pochhammer being independent of $n$ makes the calculations more straightforward.

It may help that \eqref{474141_1} can be rewritten in terms of fractional binomial coefficients: $$\pi=4-4\sum_{n\ge1}(-1)^n\left(\frac{2n}{4n^2-4\lambda+1}-\frac1{2n+1}\right)\binom{-\frac{4(1-\lambda)n+1}{4n+4\lambda}}n.\tag2\label{474141_2}$$

$\endgroup$
8
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Just two brief comments: I don't understand much of the original paper but it certainly does not seem to prove the identity. Another known case is the limit $\lambda\rightarrow\infty$, which is the Madhava-Leibniz series. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 29 at 4:29
  • 5
    $\begingroup$ Is anyone familiar enough with the methods of the paper to comment on whether there is even a proof sketch in there? I skimmed it and it really does not seem like there are enough details to indicate even vaguely what the ideas of the proofs are. It's like they're using some arcane version of the residue theorem or something. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 29 at 7:58
  • 5
    $\begingroup$ By extending the Pochhammer symbol one step more and cancelling out, it's possible to subsume the leading $4$ as the $n=0$ term, which IMO is more elegant: $$\frac{\pi}{4} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{1 - 4\lambda - 2n}{(2n+1)(1 - 4\lambda + 4n^2)} \binom{\frac{4n^2 - 4\lambda + 1}{4n+4\lambda}}{n}$$ $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 29 at 12:20
  • $\begingroup$ @HjalmarRosengren You think that the authors have not proved that the sum is independent of the parameter λ. Right? $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 29 at 13:14
  • 9
    $\begingroup$ I "protected" the question, to stop the AI generated non-answers. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 30 at 18:48

1 Answer 1

44
+50
$\begingroup$

I found an elementary proof using partial fractions. This is motivated by Nemo's observation that very similar-looking series appear in the work of Schlosser (Section 7). The matrix inversion used by Schlosser is closely related to partial fractions, see e.g. this paper.

Fix $\lambda$ and let $t_1$ and $t_2$ be variables satisfying $$t_1+t_2-\frac{t_1t_2}{\lambda}=1-\frac{1}{4\lambda}. $$ By elementary facts about partial fraction expansions, we can write $$ \label{pf}\frac{(t_1+t_2+1)_n}{(t_1)_{n+1}(t_2)_{n+1}}=\sum_{k=0}^n A_k\left(\frac{1}{t_1+k}+\frac 1{t_2+k}-\frac 1{\lambda+k}\right), \tag 1 $$ where $$ A_k= \frac{(t_1+k)(t_1+t_2+1)_n}{(t_1)_{n+1}(t_2)_{n+1}}\Bigg|_{t_1=-k}. $$ The last term in \eqref{pf} makes each term vanish in the limit $t_1\rightarrow\infty$, $t_2\rightarrow \lambda$ (and vice versa). Writing $$ a_k=t_1+t_2\Big|_{t_1=-k}=1-\frac{(2k+1)^2}{4(\lambda+k)}, $$ this can be simplified to $$ A_k=\frac{(a_k+1)_{k-1}(-1)^k}{k!(n-k)!(a_k+n+1)_{k}}. $$ Specializing $t_1=t_2=1/2$ in \eqref{pf} gives $$\frac{(2)_n}{(1/2)_{n+1}^2}=\sum_{k=0}^n \frac{(a_k+1)_{k-1}(-1)^k}{k!(n-k)!(a_k+n+1)_{k}}\left(\frac{4}{2k+1}-\frac 1{\lambda+k}\right). $$ We now multiply both sides by $n!$ and let $n\rightarrow\infty$. The left-hand side can be written $$\frac{\Gamma(n+2)\Gamma(n+1)}{\Gamma(n+3/2)^2}\cdot\frac{\Gamma(1/2)^2}{\Gamma(2)}\rightarrow \frac{\Gamma(1/2)^2}{\Gamma(2)}=\pi.$$ On the right, we have the factor $$\frac{n!}{(n-k)!(a_k+n+1)_{k}}=(-1)^{k}\frac{(-n)_{k}}{(a_k+n+1)_{k}}\rightarrow 1. $$ This gives (it should not be hard to justify taking the limit) \begin{align*}\pi&=\sum_{k=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^k}{k!}\left(\frac{4}{2k+1}-\frac 1{\lambda+k}\right)\left(2-\frac{(2k+1)^2}{4(\lambda+k)}\right)_{k-1}\\ &=\sum_{k=0}^\infty\frac{1}{k!}\left(\frac 1{\lambda+k}-\frac{4}{2k+1}\right)\left(\frac{(2k+1)^2}{4(\lambda+k)}-k\right)_{k-1} , \end{align*} which is the desired identity.

More generally, one could start with variables satisfying $$t_1+t_2-\frac{t_1t_2}{\lambda}=x+y-\frac{xy}{\lambda}, $$ take the partial fraction expansion of $$\frac{(t_1+t_2-p)_n}{(t_1)_{n+1}(t_2)_{n+1}}, $$ specialize $t_1=x$, $t_2=y$ and finally let $n\rightarrow\infty$. I checked that this gives equation (4) in the paper by Sana and Sinha (where $x=\alpha-s_1$, $y=\alpha-s_2$). Presumably other identities in their paper follow by further variations of the same argument.

$\endgroup$
5
  • 35
    $\begingroup$ Humans 1 - AI 0 $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 2 at 13:06
  • 4
    $\begingroup$ Maybe some people would prefer to write $t_1=t$ and substitute $t_2=(\lambda-t\lambda-1/4)/(\lambda-t)$ everywhere. Then we have completely standard partial fraction expansions in the variable $t$. I only introduce the variable $t_2$ to make the symmetries of the expressions more explicit. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 2 at 16:37
  • $\begingroup$ @HjalmarRosengren It occurred to me that since the Sinha-Saha series can be thought of as a generalization of Madhava's series, perhaps there is a way to generalize Madhava's correction term as well? Any thoughts about that? $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 20 at 1:01
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @TimothyChow Good question, I will think about it. I started writing a short paper about the Sinha-Saha-type series. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 21 at 5:01
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ My paper on this topic is now available at arxiv.org/abs/2409.06658 $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 11 at 6:56

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .