Consider the following problem.
Let $E,F,G$ be real or complex Banach spaces, such that $F\subset G$ with continuous embedding. Let $U\subset E$ an open set and $$ f:U\to G $$ an analytic map, such that $f(E)\subset F$. (To be clear, we require that $f$ can be written locally around each point as a power series that converges in $G$ with positive radius of convergence).
Question: Is $f$ analytic as a map $f:U\to F$?
Background.
- If the map $f$ is linear, the answer is affirmative, that is, $f$ is a bounded linear map from $E$ to $F$. This is a simple, but remarkable consequence of the closed graph theorem (see the post by Jan Bohr). It also extends to the case of Fréchet spaces.
- It is not difficult to show that the statement also holds true if $f$ is a polynomial (a finite sum of monomials, which are restrictions to the diagonal of bounded, multilinear operators from $E$ to $G$). The idea is that if $f$ is a finite sum of monomials, one can first show that all monomials map $E$ to $F$ by plugging $\lambda x$ inside $f$ for various values of lambda, and then use the closed graph theorem as in the linear case to conclude that each monomial is bounded.
- There is a positive answer to the above question in the complex case (that is, for general holomorphic maps) assuming in addition that $f$ is locally bounded from $U$ to $F$ (see my answer to the aforementioned post). This also proves that asking for the analyticity of $f$ is equivalent to asking for the continuity of $f$. The proof does not make use of the closed graph theorem at all, and in fact the kind of result is different from the previous points as it requires local boundedness.
It is easy to suspect that the local boundedness might not be necessary, exactly like in the linear case, that is why I posted this question.
I thought about this problem because often in PDE applications one has data-to-solution maps which are analytic between two Banach spaces, and often one can prove some additional properties for the solutions, so it is natural to ask whether the map is still analytic when considered with the new, restricted range (to be fair, one can usually prove this kind of things by hand looking at the specific problem, without abstract tools, so the interest in the above question is mainly motivated by curiosity).
I would guess that more than one person knows the answer to the above question, but it also looks a little far from the well-known facts about analytic/holomorphic maps between Banach spaces. If anyone could point me to a solution, a counterexample, or useful references, it would be great.