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All the proofs of the completeness of (Birkhoff's) equational logic I have read seem to pick representatives for equivalence classes of terms and hence require the axiom of choice. Is AC (or a weak version) necessary to prove that theorem?

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  • $\begingroup$ Do you take the signature countable or arbitrary? $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 16 at 7:35
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    $\begingroup$ Is not the relevant question here: are arities finite or arbitrary? $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 16 at 7:52
  • $\begingroup$ Operations have finite arities in my case. $\endgroup$
    – ralphS16
    Commented Feb 16 at 8:24
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    $\begingroup$ Ah, never mind, I didn't read the question carefully, and thought it was about Birkhoff's HSP theorem. There the answer is not at all obvious, and may well depend on the countability of the signature. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 16 at 9:01

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I do not know what proofs precisely you have in mind, but at least for operations with finite arities no choice is needed, nor excluded middle for that matter. Let us review the proof to make sure this is the case.

Consider a signature $\Sigma = (\mathsf{op}_i : n_i)_{i \in I}$, indexed by an arbitrary set $I$, where each operation $\mathrm{op}_i$ has arity $n_i \in \mathbb{N}$. Let $T$ be the set of all terms built inductively as:

  • variable symbols $x_0, x_1, x_2, \ldots$
  • if $t_1, \ldots, t_{n_i} \in T$ then $\mathrm{op}_i(t_1, \ldots, t_{n_i}) \in T$.

Let $E$ be a set of equalities of the form $t = u$, where $t, u \in T$. We consider the equational theory (the deductive closure) of $E$. Write $t \cong u$ for provable equality, i.e., for any $t, u \in T$, $$t \cong u \iff E \vdash t = u.$$ Clearly, $\cong$ is an equivalence relation.

If we can show that the quotient set $A \mathrel{{:}{=}} T/\cong$ is a $\Sigma$-algebra that satisfies the equations $E$, we will be able to prove Birkhoff's theorem because equality in $A$ coincides with provable equality with respect to $E$.

So let us be careful about showing that $A$ is a $\Sigma$-algebra. For any $i \in I$, we must interpret $\mathrm{op}_i$ as some map $f_i : A^{n_i} \to A$, which we do as follows (this is the place where choice seemingly appears):

Given equivalence classes $\xi_1, \ldots, \xi_{n_i} \in A$, there exist terms $t_1 \in \xi_1, \ldots, t_{n_i} \in \xi_{n-1}$. Define $f_i(\xi_1, \ldots, \xi_{n_i}) = [\mathrm{op}_i(t_1, \ldots, t_{n_i})]_{\cong}$.

It is easy to check that the above definition of $f_i$ is well-formed. Crucially, we did not use any choice! We used $n_i$ applications of $\exists$-elimination. If we allowed operations with non-finite arities, then we would be in a pickle – but finitely many choices can be done without appeal to the axiom of choice, one only needs induction on $\mathbb{N}$.

$\newcommand{\sem}[1]{[\![#1]\!]}$ Second, let us verify that $A$ satisfies any equation $t = u$ in $E$. Suppose $x_1, \ldots, x_k$ are the variables appearing in the terms $t$ and $u$. Let $\nu : \{x_1, \ldots, x_k\} \to A$ be an assignment of values to the variables. There are terms $s_1, \ldots, s_k \in A$ such that $\nu(x_i) = [s_i]_{\cong}$ for $i \in \{1, \ldots, k\}$. (Again, this step does not require any choice, it is an $k$-fold application of the logical rule of $\exists$-elimination.) Let $\sigma = [s_1/x_1, \ldots, s_k/x_k]$ be the substutution which replaces $x_i$ with $s_i$, and write $\sigma(t)$ for the application of $\sigma$ to a term $t$.

Let $\sem{t}_\nu, \sem{u}_\nu \in A$ be the interpretations of $t$ and $u$ in $A$ with respect to the valuation $\nu$. Observe that $$\sem{t}_\nu = [\sigma(t)]_{\cong}, \qquad\qquad \sem{u}_\nu = [\sigma(u)]_{\cong}.$$ Moreover, because $t = u$ is in $E$, $E$ proves the instance $\sigma(t) = \sigma(u)$, from which we get $$\sem{t}_\nu = [\sigma(t)]_{\cong} = [\sigma(u)]_{\cong} = \sem{u}_\nu,$$ as required.

So, no choice and no excluded middle for finite arities. For infinite arites one can either use choice, or cross over to the Dark Side and use homotopy type theory, where the Lindenbaum-Tarski algebra can be constructed without choice using a higher inductive-inductive type.

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  • $\begingroup$ Don't you need to show that $A$ satisfies the equations in $E$ ? $\endgroup$
    – ralphS16
    Commented Feb 16 at 8:23
  • $\begingroup$ I found a formalization of completeness in Agda (actually there are more than one) so I think AC is not needed. They do prove your $A$ satisfies the equations in $E$ e.g. here, but I cannot read Agda and I couldn't parse how they were different from the other proofs I have seen. $\endgroup$
    – ralphS16
    Commented Feb 16 at 11:35
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    $\begingroup$ If you're looking for formalization, I can recommend ualib.org. It is not just dry code, there is text that takes the reader through it. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 16 at 12:14
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    $\begingroup$ @ralphS16: You only need to choose finitely many representatives there (representatives for the interpretations of the free variables of $s$, $t$), and that doesn’t require the axiom of choice. If you’re not familiar with that fact: Choosing a witness for a single existential property is just the natural deduction rule for existence; extending this to choosing finitely many at once is direct by induction. Full AC is needed just to make infinitely many such choices simultaneously (or more precisely, $X$-many for an arbitrary set $X$). $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 16 at 16:36
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    $\begingroup$ @ralphS16: I spelled out the proofs in detail. There is no choice, only eliminations of $\exists$. What may be throwing you off is the common diction "choose an element from the equivalence class" – this is not an application of the axiom of choice, despite the (unfortunate) phrasing. As Peter points out, it is an application of the $\exists$-elimnation. It can be done $n$ times for any $n \in \mathbb{N}$ without choice. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 16 at 19:33

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