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"By contradiction" or "of negation" is an old chestnut of constructive dispute.

But taking apartness as primitive instead of equality yields a definition of irrationality without negation, making rationality a derived notion.

So can we give a neat constructive proof of $\forall p q.\sqrt2 \neq p/q$ by induction on $p,q:\mathbb N$ with $q\neq 0$?

To do this properly would require first re-formulating the axioms of arithmetic with apartness instead of equality.

There is no doubt that this is true, although it is perhaps less appreciated than it should be that the standard result from Euclid or before uses induction.

(cf David Fowler, Could the Greeks have used Mathematical Induction? Did they use it?, Physis 31 (1994) 252--265.)

Then if the standard proof is classical, I believe that some easy proof theory make it constructive.

But the reason for asking the question is to see whether some logical or constructive insight can be gained from re-thinking the proof using $\neq$, $\forall$ and $\lor$ instead of $=$, $\exists$ and $\land$.

Maybe (probably?) not, but it's worth a try.

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    $\begingroup$ Well, the usual elementary purely arithmetical proof shows $2q^2\ne p^2$, thus $|2-p^2/q^2|\ge1/q^2$, thus something like $|\sqrt2-p/q|\ge1/(2\sqrt2q^2)$ or so. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 11 at 20:20
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    $\begingroup$ @PaulTaylor: What's the motivation for requiring that the proof proceed "by induction on $p$ and $q$"? Does Emil's comment satisfy you (it can easily be modified to give an elementary proof that uses only basic arithmetic and does not mention any absolute values and fractions)? $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 14 at 20:41
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    $\begingroup$ The comment by @EmilJeřábek should really be an answer and, furthermore, I think it should be the approved answer. It certainly generalizes (by adapting Liouville's standard inequality based on the mean value theorem) to show constructively that any algebraic number that is not rational (in the sense $\neg(\alpha\in\mathbb{Q})$) is apart from every rational (in the sense $|\alpha - p/q| > 0$). $\endgroup$
    – Gro-Tsen
    Commented Jan 14 at 21:08
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    $\begingroup$ One can show apartness by induction: $|p^2-2q^2|=|(2q-p)^2-2(p-q)^2|$. Note that here $(2q-p)+(p-q)=q$ is smaller than $p+q$. $\endgroup$
    – GH from MO
    Commented Jan 14 at 22:36
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    $\begingroup$ Note: the standard notation for apartness is #, not ≠. Two slashes, not one. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 15 at 16:44

3 Answers 3

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Every positive rational number has a finite continued fraction expansion. This one can prove by induction. On the other hand, $\sqrt{2}$ has an infinite continued fraction expansion.

Added 1. Another way of telling the proof is as follows. If $\sqrt 2=p/q$, then also $\sqrt 2=(2q-p)/(p-q)$. Hence one can induct on the sum $p+q$ to show that $\sqrt 2\neq p/q$. By the way, this was probably the original proof as one can tell it in purely geometric language, starting from the side and diagonal of a square. The point is that the Euclidean algorithm does not terminate for the side and diagonal of a square, hence they are not proportional. All this was well-known to ancient Greek mathematicians.

Added 2. Yet another variant of the proof is based on the identity $$|p^2-2q^2|=|(2q-p)^2-2(p-q)^2|.$$ Using this identity, it follows by induction that $|p^2-2q^2|\geq 1$. In turn, this lower bound implies that $$|\sqrt{2} - p/q|\geq c/q^2\qquad\text{with}\qquad c=2/(3+2\sqrt{2}),$$ and this is sharp for $p/q=3/2$. Indeed, we have that $$|\sqrt{2} - p/q|=\frac{|p^2-2q^2|}{q^2|\sqrt{2} + p/q|}\geq\frac{1}{q^2|\sqrt{2} + p/q|},$$ hence the claim is clear when $p/q\leq 3/2$. For $p/q>3/2$ and $q\geq 2$ we can argue as follows: $$|\sqrt{2} - p/q|>3/2-\sqrt{2}=c/4\geq c/q^2.$$ Finally, for $p/q>3/2$ and $q=1$ we have that $$|\sqrt{2} - p/q|\geq 2-\sqrt{2}>c=c/q^2.$$ For a more general result, see Theorem 2 in this summary.

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    $\begingroup$ It's not nearly as heavy as you think. It's basically the Euclidean algorithm. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 11 at 20:25
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    $\begingroup$ Then: can all this be done in the setting of the OP? For example, can "infinite" be formulated without negation? Does $\sqrt{2}$ have a unique continued fraction? (Can uniqueness be formulated without negation?) $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 11 at 21:11
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    $\begingroup$ @GeraldEdgar, re, "there exists a unique $x$ such that $P(x)$" is "$(\exists x.P(x)) \land (\forall x, y.(P(x) \land P(y)) \implies x = y)$." Since inequality for integers is fine, I think it's totally reasonable to say that a continued-fraction expansion $[a_0; a_1, \dotsc]$ is non-terminating if $\forall N\exists n > N.a_n \ne 0$. $\endgroup$
    – LSpice
    Commented Jan 11 at 23:36
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    $\begingroup$ @PaulTaylor See my "Added" section. $\endgroup$
    – GH from MO
    Commented Jan 12 at 5:22
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    $\begingroup$ @LSpice Zeroes can’t occur in a continued fraction expansion besides $a_0$, and even if they could, this would give something rather different from terminating continued fractions. A terminating continued fraction has, literally, only finitely many terms $[a_0;a_1,\dots,a_n]$. If you tried to continue it past this point, the next term would have to be $\infty$ rather than $0$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 12 at 10:36
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Let $\nu_2(x)$ be the $2$-adic order of rational number $x$.

[EDIT] Note that this is completely elementary. It doesn't even require unique factorization. Thus for a nonzero integer $k$, $\nu_2(k) = m$ where $k$ is divisible by $2^m$ but not by $2^{m+1}$. Or if you prefer, it is the number of trailing $0$'s when $|k|$ is written in base $2$. For nonzero integers $p$ and $q$, $\nu_2(p/q) = \nu_2(p) - \nu_2(q)$. It is easy to show that this is well-defined, i.e. if $p/q = r/s$, then $ps = rq$ and $$\nu_2(ps) = \nu_2(p) + \nu_2(s) = \nu_2(rq) = \nu_2(r) + \nu_2(q)$$ so $\nu_2(p) - \nu_2(q) = \nu_2(r) - \nu_2(s)$.

Then $\nu_2((p/q)^2) = 2 \nu_2(p/q)$ is an even integer, but $\nu_2(2) = 1$ is odd, therefore $(p/q)^2 \ne 2$.

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  • $\begingroup$ An even heavier proof than the other one, and still not in the spirit of the question. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 14 at 10:35
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    $\begingroup$ How is this heavy? Note that $\nu_2$ is completely elementary: it really has nothing to do with $p$-adic numbers except terminology (maybe I should mention that in the answer). $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 14 at 19:56
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    $\begingroup$ The question is not about $(p/q)^2 \neq 2$ but about $|(p/q)^2 - 2| > 0$, i.e., the difference between inequality and apartness. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 14 at 21:42
  • $\begingroup$ @PaulTaylor $p^2 = 2q^2$ is impossible for odd $p$. Then we can use induction by the maximum power of 2 that divides $p$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 14 at 21:49
  • $\begingroup$ @DenisShatrov: more simply, every integer is either odd or even (by induction) and use induction again for the "impossibility". That's why I have described various arguments as "heavy". But this is just another repackaging of the classic proof. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 14 at 22:33
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I asked this question because I was wondering whether considering a positive definition of irrationality could yield any constructive enlightenment, rather than re-packaging the traditional proof of irrationality of $\sqrt 2$.

@Gro-Tsen, @EmilJeřábek and @GHfromMO have convinced me (contrary to my initial thoughts) that continued fractions do this.

There is a classical result that the irrationals are homeomorphic to Baire space. The positive definition, apartness-from-rationals, makes this constructive.

Classically, there is a floor function ${\mathbb R}\to{\mathbb Z}$, given by $$\lfloor x\rfloor\equiv\max\{n\in{\mathbb Z}:n\leq x\}.$$ However, this is not continuous (since $\mathbb R$ is connected) and so not constructive (since $n\leq x$ is not decidable).

The standard constructive solution to this difficulty is the express the Archimedean axiom as $$ \exists n\in{\mathbb Z}.\quad n-1 < x < n+1, $$ so $x$ might miss the "exact" floor by 1.

However, this problem goes away if $x$ is apart-from-rational, which we can write explicitly as $$ \forall q\in{\mathbb Q}.\exists m\in{\mathbb N}^+.\quad (x < q-\frac{1}{m}) \quad\lor\quad (q+\frac{1}{m} < x), $$ in which the decidable disjunction corrects the ambiguity in the constructive Archimedean axiom.

Not only does this give a constructive definition of $\lfloor x\rfloor$, but also of the reciprocal $1/(x-{\lfloor x\rfloor})$, for which $m$ is an upper bound (cf the Archimedean axiom again). It's these points that convince me that continued fractions answer my philosophical question.

Writing $A\subset{\mathbb R}$ for the subspace of apart-from-rational numbers, we then have a homeomorphism $$ A\ \cong\ {\mathbb Z}\times A, $$ and therefore a continuous map $A\to{\mathbb Z}^{\mathbb N}$. In fact the sequence consists of positive integers, apart from the first.

(For categorists, $A$ is a coalgebra for the functor ${\mathbb N}\times({-})$ and Baire space is the final coalgebra.)

Conversely, any continued fraction gives a pair of recurrence relations for the fraction in standard form, which is automatically in lowest terms. Therefore the denominators increase without bound and (I think) it follows that the limit is apart-from-rational.

Moreover, this defines a continuous map from Baire space ${\mathbb Z}\times{\mathbb N}^{\mathbb N}\to A\subset{\mathbb R}$ that is inverse to the one before.

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