I am reading Hatcher's algebraic topology for an assignment on generalized cohomology theories, and in section 4.E p. 447 he says the following
The wedge axiom implies that $h(\textit{point})$ is trivial. To see this, just use the fact that for any $X$ we have $X \vee \textit{point} = X$ , so the map $h(X)\times h(\textit{point})\to h(X)$ induced by inclusion of the first summand is a bijection, but this map is the projection $(a, b)\mapsto a$, hence $h(\textit{point})$ must have only one element.
I do not understand why this map must be the projection, since the axioms do not specify how to build the induced map in cohomology for a map of CW complexes.
Thanks you in advance