The situation given above is like a queueing process in discrete time with constant service time and Poissonian arrivals.
Call $D_t$ the number of objects added between times $t+1$. Then
$(N_t)_{t \ge 0}$ is a Markov chain governed by the i.i.d. sequence $(D_t)_{t \ge 1}$ via the relation $N_{t+1} = (N_t - 1)_+ + D_{t+1}$. Since the Poisson distribution gives a positive mass to each non-negative integer, this chain is irreducible and aperiodic.
By recursion, $N_t = N_0 + S_t + A_t$ with
$$N_t = \sum_{s=1}^t (D_s-1)\ \text{ et }\ A_t = \sum_{s=0}^{t-1}
\mathbb{1}_{[X_s=0]}.$$
The law of large numbers yields $S_t/t \to \lambda-1$ a.s.. We recover and precise what you have already noticed.
If $\lambda>1$, then $N_t \to +\infty$ a.s. and $(A_t)_{t \ge 0}$ is stationary: the chain is transient.
If $\lambda<1$, then $A_t \to +\infty$ a.s. and $\liminf A_t/t = 1-\lambda$: the chain is positively recurrent. It has a unique invariant probability measure $\pi$.
If $\lambda=1$, then $\liminf S_t = -\infty$ a.s.., so $\limsup A_t = +\infty$ a.s.., so $A_t \to +\infty$ a.s. : the chain is recurrent, actually null recurrent.
In the last two cases, the distribution of the return tile to $0$ can be computed by applying the optional stopping theorem to the martingale $(z^{S_t+t}/\varphi(z)^t)_{t \ge 0}$. Here $\varphi$ denotes the generating function of $D_1$: for all $z \in \mathbb{C}$,
$\varphi(z) = \mathbb{E}[z^{D_1}]$. In the present case $\varphi(z) = e^{\lambda(z-1)}$ for all $z \in \mathbb{C}$.
Let us focus on the case where $\lambda<1$. The invariant probability measure $\pi$ can be determined via its generating function $\psi$: for all $z \in \mathbb{C}$, such that $|z| \le 1$,
$$\psi(z) = \sum_{k \ge 0} \pi\{k\}z^k.$$
Indeed, if $N_0$ follows the distribution $\pi$, then $N_1 = (N_0-1)_+ + D_1$ also. Thus, setting $p_n = e^{-\lambda}\lambda^n/n!$, we get
$$\pi\{n\} = p_n \pi\{0\} + \sum_{k=1}^{n+1} p_{n+1-k} \pi\{k\}$$
Thus, for all $z \in \mathbb{C}$ such that $|z|<1$,
$$\psi(z) = \Big( \frac{\psi(z)-\pi\{0\}}{z}+ \pi\{0\} \Big) \varphi(z).$$
so
$$\psi(z) = \pi\{0\} \varphi(z) \frac{1-z}{\varphi(z)-z}.$$
Letting $z$ go to $1-$ yields $1=\pi\{0\}/(1-\lambda)$, so $\pi\{0\} = (1-\lambda)$. Hence $\psi$ is completely known.
q\sim
in math mode andPoisson
in text mode with no space between the foregoing MathJax code and the wordPoisson
, the result is different from what it is when you haveq\sim{}
in math mode andPoisson
in text mode, again with no space between them, and the latter can be considered correct where the former is not for reasons that should be obvious if you try it and see. $\endgroup$