Consider an entire function $f: \mathbb C \to \mathbb C$ such that $f|_{\mathbb R}(x)\to 0$ as $x \in \mathbb R \to \pm\infty.$ Does that imply that for each $T>0,$ we have $f(x+iy) \to 0$ as $x\to \pm\infty$ uniformly for $y\in [0,T]?$
This looks like the result of controlling the value of a holomorphic function by its value on the boundary of a region. But $\mathbb R$ is not the boundary of a region on the Riemann sphere. Moreover, I could not find many good examples. Examples like $e^{-z^2}$ does satisfy the condition above.
Such uniform convergence is very useful for estimating integrals of the form $$ \int_{\mathbb R} f(x) dx $$ where we can just instead estimate $\int_{\mathbb R} f(x+iy) dx$ for some suitable value of $y.$ This can be very helpful.