2
$\begingroup$

Definition: For integer $p\geq 1$, we say $x\in \mathbb{R}^d$ is a $p$-th order stationary point of a function $f \colon \mathbb{R}^d \to \mathbb{R}$ if there exists a $C>0$ and an $\epsilon>0$ such that $f(y) - f(x) \geq - C \|y-x\|^{p+1}$ for all $y$ such that $\|y-x\| \leq \epsilon$.

Definition: $x\in \mathbb{R}^d$ is a local minimum of a function $f \colon \mathbb{R}^d \to \mathbb{R}$ if there exists an $\epsilon>0$ such that $f(y) - f(x) \geq 0$ for all $y$ such that $\|y-x\| \leq \epsilon$.

Question: Let $d \geq 2$ and $k \geq 1$. Does there exist an integer $p = p(k, d)$ such that for every polynomial $f \colon \mathbb{R}^d \to \mathbb{R}$ of degree at most $k$, if $x$ is a $p$-th order stationary point of $f$ then $x$ is actually a local minimum of $f$?

Comments:

  • Naively I expected we could take $p=k$. This is true for $k=1,2$, but not true for $k=3$. For example, consider $x = (0,0)$ and $f(x_1, x_2) = x_2^2 - x_1^2 x_2 - x_1 x_2^2$.
  • For $k=3$ and $d=2$, it is not too hard to show that $p=5$ works. But the proof doesn't seem to generalize.
  • I suspect $p=k$ works if we restrict to requiring that $f$ is homogeneous (around $x$) [but I care about general polynomials, not homogeneous ones].
$\endgroup$
1
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ If you are convinced that your answer is correct, then you might consider "accepting" it by clicking in the check mark next to it. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 3 at 1:49

1 Answer 1

0
$\begingroup$

The answer is yes: such a finite positive integer $p(k,d)$ always exists. A proof can be found in my blog post here.

The proof relies on the Łojasiewicz inequality, and bounds for the Łojasiewicz exponent for polynomials, given by D'Acunto and Kurdyka.

$\endgroup$

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .