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Let $\{V_n\}_{n=1}^\infty$ be a collection of finite dimensional vector subspaces of $L^2[0,1]$ such that $V_n \subset V_{n+1}$ and $\bigcup_{n=1}^\infty V_n$ is dense in $L^2[0,1]$. Suppose further that each $V_n$ consists of smooth functions.

Consider a collection of invertible linear mappings $\{T_n\}_{n=1}^\infty$ defined on each $V_n$ such that $T_n(A) \subset T_{n+1}(A)$ for all $A \subset V_n$.

Now, if we fix some $m \in \mathbb{N}$, then the image $T_n(V_m)$ has the same dimension as $V_m$ for all $n \geq m$. Now, I wonder what the vector space \begin{equation} \bigcup_{n=1}^\infty T_n(V_m) \end{equation} looks like. It certainly looks like finite-dimensional, but is it possible to say more about this space? For example, does it still consist of smooth functions?

Also, if $v \in V_m$, in what sense does $T_n(v)$ converge in $\bigcup_{n=1}^\infty T_n(V_m)$ as $n \to \infty$?

I think LF or LB spaces are relevant topics, but cannot find some concrete information to apply to this case. Could anyone please help me?

Edit : OK, I need to change the condition $T_n(A) \subset T_{n+1}(A)$ by the one that

"there exists a projection $P_{n,n'} : T_n(V_m) \to T_{n'}(V_m)$ for all $n \geq n' \geq m$ such that $P_{n', k} \circ P_{n,n'}= P_{n,k}$ for $n \geq n' \geq k$ and $P_{n,n}=Id$." Also, I further asssume that the image of each $T_n$ consists of smooth functions as well. In this case, Is the above union a finite-dimensional space consisting of smooth functions, so that I can use "any" $L^p$ norm on it?

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  • $\begingroup$ What do you mean by "such that $T_n(A) \subset T_{n+1}(A)$ for all $A \subset V_n$"? if you apply it to singletons $A$, it just says that $T_{n+1}$ extends $T_n$. $\endgroup$
    – YCor
    Commented Jun 20, 2023 at 3:48
  • $\begingroup$ Oh, I saw afterwards you replaced it. But editing would avoid other readers to lose time on it. $\endgroup$
    – YCor
    Commented Jun 20, 2023 at 3:51
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    $\begingroup$ In standard English, one may speak of "what something looks like" or of "how something looks", but not of "how something looks like". And in some contexts, "How does it look?" is construed as "How good does it look?". $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 20, 2023 at 22:23
  • $\begingroup$ Oh I see... Thank you for your correction. $\endgroup$
    – Isaac
    Commented Jun 21, 2023 at 9:38

2 Answers 2

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The expression \begin{equation} \tilde W_m:=\bigcup_{n=1}^\infty T_n(V_m) \end{equation} is undefined in general for $m\ge2$, because $T_n$ is defined (and is invertible) only on $V_n$ and hence $T_n(V_m)$ may be undefined for $n<m$.

So, instead of $\tilde W_m$, one may want to consider \begin{equation} W_m:=\bigcup_{n=m}^\infty T_n(V_m). \end{equation} However, the condition that $T_n(A)\subset T_{n+1}(A)$ for all $A\subset V_n$ implies that $T_m(V_m)\subset T_n(V_m)$ for all $n\ge m$. It is also given that $T_n(V_m)$ has the same dimension as $V_m$ for all $n\ge m$. So, $T_n(V_m)=T_m(V_m)$ for all $n\ge m$, and hence we simply have \begin{equation} W_m=T_m(V_m). \end{equation}

As to whether $W_m$ will still consist of smooth functions, the answer is: not in general. E.g., let $V_n$ be the space of all polynomials of degree $\le n$. Let $(h_n)_{n=0}^\infty$ be an enumeration of (say) the Haar basis. For a polynomial $p\in V_n$ such that $p(t)=a_0+a_1 t+\cdots+a_n t^n$ for some scalars $a_0,\dots,a_n$ and all $t\in[0,1]$, let \begin{equation} T_n(p):=a_0 h_0+a_1 h_1+\cdots+a_n h_n. \end{equation} Then all your conditions on the $V_n$'s and the $T_n$'s hold, whereas $W_m$ contains the (discontinuous) Haar functions $h_0,\dots,h_m$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Oh, I see. In fact, I need to change the condition $T_n(V_m) \subset T_{n+1}(V_m)$ to a different one. I edited the question as such. Could you answer it as well please? $\endgroup$
    – Isaac
    Commented Jun 19, 2023 at 18:38
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    $\begingroup$ @Isaac : (i) I think the order of the composition $P_{n,n'} \circ P_{n', k}$ should be interchanged. (ii) The question about smooth functions in the image has now disappeared. (iii) The rest of the answer is not affected by your edits. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 19, 2023 at 18:49
  • $\begingroup$ (i) I just interchanged them. (ii) what do you mean it disappeared?? (iii) I would like to make sure about equivalence of norms as well. Could you please check? $\endgroup$
    – Isaac
    Commented Jun 19, 2023 at 18:54
  • $\begingroup$ (ii) If you mean that the functions in the union space are all smooth, could you tell me how to prove this fact rigorously? $\endgroup$
    – Isaac
    Commented Jun 19, 2023 at 18:54
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    $\begingroup$ @Isaac : If $T_n(V_n)$ is a subset, for each $n$, of the set (say $S$) of all smooth functions, then the union of any subsets of the $T_n(V_n)$'s is a subset of $S$ -- by the very definition of the union. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 19, 2023 at 19:06
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For the edited question:

Let $\{f_k\}$ be a basis of $L^2$ using smooth functions.
Let $V_n = \mathop{span}(f_1, \ldots, f_n)$.
Let $T_m$ cyclically permute the $f_1, \ldots, f_m$ with $f_1 \mapsto f_m$.

Then all the requirements you gave are satisfied. But $$ \bigcup_{n = m}^\infty T_n(V_m) = \bigcup_{n = 1}^\infty V_n = \mathop{span}(\{f_k\})$$ is not finite dimensional.

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  • $\begingroup$ I see. My original intention was a collection of $n \times n$ invertible matrices $A_n$ such that $A_n$ is the submatrix of $A_{n+1}$ and $e_1 \in \mathbb{R}^n$ such that $A_n e_1 $ is the first column of $A_n$. Then can I make sense of the union $\cup_{n=1}^\infty \langle A_n e_1 \rangle$ as $1$-dimensional vector space? $\endgroup$
    – Isaac
    Commented Jun 19, 2023 at 21:05
  • $\begingroup$ What do you mean by "$A_n$ is the submatrix of $A_{n+1}$"? Is $A_n$ situated in a particular corner of $A_{n+1}$? Or is it just "somewhere as a submatrix"? $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 20, 2023 at 17:35

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