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A recent question asked whether, given a finite set of positive numbers $A$, it is always the case that the set $A+A-A$ has more positive than negative elements. Terry Tao showed that this is false (and can fail in a very strong sense), but is true if one counts with multiplicity. My question is whether there is a method of counting with partial multiplicity which is critical.

To make this precise, it is helpful to reframe this problem in terms of convolutions. For this, we take a finite set $A$ and consider the convolution $1_{A+A-A} = 1_A \ast 1_A \ast 1_{-A}$. In this language, the first question is equivalent to the integral inequality $$ \int_{-\infty}^0 (1_{A+A-A})^0 \, d \mu \leq \int_{0}^\infty (1_{A+A-A})^0 \, d \mu, $$ where the integrals are done with respect to the counting measure and we use the convention $0^0 =0$.

On the other hand, counting with multiplicity in the usual sense corresponds to showing that $$ \int_{-\infty}^0 1_{A+A-A} \, d \mu \leq \int_{0}^\infty 1_{A+A-A} \, d \mu. $$ And the latter inequality is straightforward to establish because $A-A$ is a symmetric set and adding $A$ shifts it toward the positive numbers).

This raises the possibility of counting the solutions with partial multiplicity. More precisely, is there a $p < 1$ so that $$ \int_{-\infty}^0 (1_{A+A-A})^p \, d \mu \leq \int_{0}^\infty (1_{A+A-A})^p \, d \mu $$ for all finite sets $A$? Furthermore, is there a critical value $p^\ast$ so that for any $q<p^\ast$, we can find finite sets so that $$ \int_{-\infty}^0 (1_{A+A-A})^q \, d \mu \geq \int_{0}^\infty (1_{A+A-A})^q \, d \mu $$ (or even $\geq C \int_{0}^\infty (1_{A+A-A})^q \, d \mu$ for arbitrarily large constant $C$?).

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  • $\begingroup$ For fixed A, the gap (i.e., the integral of the positive part minus the integral of the negative part) is a continuous function in q. According to the referenced post at q=0 the gap can be arbitrarily big , so I doubt whether such a universal p^* can exist. $\endgroup$
    – sb945
    Commented May 30, 2023 at 15:26
  • $\begingroup$ For $q$ small, it is definitely possible to make the inequality fail simply by continuity. However, when the sets are very large, it's much less obvious to me that the inequality can fail for some definite value of $q$ (since the continuity in $q$ will not be uniform in $A$). $\endgroup$
    – Gabe K
    Commented May 30, 2023 at 15:43

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