Reading about ultraproducts in model theory and in Banach spaces leads to two distinct definitions. E.g., for an ultrapower given by an ultrafilter $\mu$ on $\mathbb{N}$, both notions of ultrapower are quotients of the space of sequences $\sigma: \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{R}$.
In model theory. Two sequences $\sigma,\tau$ are equivalent in the case that $\{ i \in \mathbb{N} : \sigma_i = \tau_i \} \in \mu$. For example, the hyperreals are a model-theoretic ultrapower $\lim_\mu \mathbb{R}$.
For Banach spaces (noting we also restrict to bounded sequences). Two sequences $\sigma,\tau$ are equivalent in the case that $\lim_\mu \| \sigma_i - \tau_i \| = 0$. For example, any ultrapower $(\mathbb{R})_\mu$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{R}$.
Putting aside the difference that in Banach spaces we only look at bounded sequences, these two equivalence relations are not the same. Therefore, it seems confusing to call both constructions an ultraproduct. This leads to my question:
Is there any argument that shows that the difference between both of these constructions is negligible? Perhaps there are a few possible answers:
- There is almost a quotient map $\lim_\mu \mathbb{R} \to (\mathbb{R})_\mu$ for which one could lift any statement about the Banach space ultrapower to the model-theoretic one.
- The additional “non-standard” elements in the model-theoretic object are not useful for Banach spaces. Though in that case, why call the Banach space construction an ultraproduct?!
- There isn’t any formal result relating the two constructions, but they are at least similar-looking.
Are there any perspectives that fit into the first two points — or at least does not fit into the last point?