$\require{AMScd}$ Dear all,
I have a question concerning Charles Rezk's paper "A model for the homotopy theory of homotopy theory ", precisely Proposition 7.6 in this paper. It is proven there that if $U$ and $V$ are complete Segal spaces, then Dwyer-Kan equivalence $f\colon U\to V$ is a Reedy equivalence.
The proof (roughly) goes as follows. We consider the diagram $$ \begin{CD} U_0 @>s_0>> U_1 @>>>U_0\times U_0\\ @Vf_0VV @VVV @VVV\\ V_0 @>s_0>> V_1 @>>>V_0\times V_0. \end{CD} $$ The right-hand square is a homotopy pullback, because $f$ is a Dwyer-Kan equivalence, thus induces an equivalence on horizontal fibers in this square. The big rectangle is a homotopy pullback, because $U,V$ are complete Segal Spaces, so the horizontal fibers are spaces of paths between points, so also equivalent. Now from this we deduce that $f_0\colon U_0\to V_0$ is a weak equivalence.
I am not sure why the last statement holds. It sounds to me like a general fact from model categories saying that if $$ \begin{CD} X@>{\Delta}>>Y \\ @VfVV @V{f\times f}VV \\ Y@>\Delta>> Y\times Y \end{CD} $$ is a homotopy pullback, then $f$ is a weak equivalence. Is this true? And is my intuition here correct, or in the proof above we are using something else?