Fix $n\in \mathbb N$. Let $X$ be a separable metric space of (inductive) dimension $n$. Let \begin{align} \Lambda(X)&=\{x\in X:X\text{ is $n$-dimensional at }x\}\\ \\ \Lambda^2(X)&=\Lambda(\Lambda(X))\\ &(=\{x\in \Lambda(X):\Lambda(X)\text{ is $n$-dimensional at }x\})\\ \\ \Lambda^3(X)&=\Lambda(\Lambda^2(X)) \end{align}
Note that there are weakly $n$-dimensional spaces which have the property $\dim(X)=n$ and $\dim(\Lambda(X))<n$. In this case, $\Lambda(X)\neq\varnothing$ while $\Lambda^2(X)=\varnothing$. In particular, $\Lambda^2(X)\neq \Lambda(X)$.
Question. Is $\Lambda^3(X)=\Lambda^2(X)$?
I am primarily interested in this question when $n=1$.