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I'm generally interested in being able to find an asymptotic expansion of

$$ \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \left[ e^{- \frac{f(n)}{x}} \right] $$

As $x \rightarrow \infty$ and $f(n)$ is a smooth monotonically increasing function of $n$.

A particular concrete problem I'm working on is:

$$ \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \left[ e^{- \frac{2^n}{x}} \right] $$

I know that the function:

$$ \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \left[ e^{- \frac{n}{x}} \right] $$

Is asymptotically equal to $x$ (and higher order terms involve the bernoulli numbers) by a rather convoluted argument involving $u = - \frac{1}{x}$ and then observing the singularity at $u=0$ from the left of $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \left[ e^{nu} \right]$ is of type $\frac{1}{u}$ (via laurent expansion of $\frac{1}{1-e^u}$ ) .

These techniques do not seem to generalize once I replace my $f(n)$ with any other monotonically increasing function other than $n$. Mainly the problem is that by making that transformation I go from a montonically growing function that I do not understand to a singularity that I understand even less. Without the ability to make algebraic manipulations with closed forms its hard to reason about these singularities.

Some work to get started:

I think there's $\log_2(x)$ involved somewhere here since the function

$$ \frac{1}{\log_2(x)} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \left[ e^{- \frac{2^n}{x}} \right] $$

seems to grow very very very slowly. But there was absolutely no "rigor" in how I arrived at that result.

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2 Answers 2

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Note that

$$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(2^n)^s}=\frac{2^s}{2^s-1}.$$

It now follows by Mellin inversion that

$$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}e^{-2^n/x} = \frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_{3-i\infty}^{3+i\infty}\frac{2^s}{2^s-1}x^s\Gamma(s)ds.$$

Using Stirling's formula, we can push the contour to the left and collect residues at the poles of the integrand, which are at $s=2\pi i j/(\log 2)$ for each $j\in\mathbb{Z}$ and at $s=-k$ for each positive integer $k$. The main term

$$\frac{\log x}{\log 2}$$

arises from the pole at $s=0$.

Even though there are infinitely many poles on the line $\Re(s)=0$, their contribution is small because of the rapid decay of $|\Gamma(it)|$ when $t$ is real and $|t|\to\infty$.

More generally, suppose that $f(n)$ is such that $|f(n)|$ does not grow too rapidly, and define $$ F(s) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{f(n)}{n^s}. $$ Then we have that $$ G(x) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}f(n) e^{-n/x}=\frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_{c-i\infty}^{c+i\infty}F(s)x^s\Gamma(s)ds, $$ where $c>0$ is large enough to ensure that the integrand converges absolutely. An asymptotic for $G(x)$ (or maybe only an upper bound for $|G(x)|$) will depend on the growth of $|F(s)|$ and on the location of and residues at the poles of $F$ (if any poles exist at all). The specific application above follows when $f(n)$ is the indicator function of whether $n$ is a power of $2$.

(To be clear, my logs are all in the natural base.)

ADDED: The full expansion is

$$ \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}e^{-2^n/x} = \frac{\log x-\gamma}{\log 2}+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{2}{\log 2}\sum_{j=1}^{\infty}\Re\Big(x^{\frac{2\pi ij}{\log 2}}\Gamma\Big(\frac{2\pi i j}{\log 2}\Big)\Big)-\sum_{j=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^{j}}{j!}\frac{x^{-j}}{2^j-1}. $$

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  • $\begingroup$ This is interesting! I'm a bit surprised because I guess I was expecting to see terms of the form $\frac{1}{x^k} \frac{1}{k!} \frac{1}{1-2^{k}}$ if one does a non rigorous series re-summation of all those exponentials but that doesn't even appear here. I'm going to look at this carefully to understand how these bernoulli numbers happened again. Do you know if your formula above converges to a real number at $x=1$? Those gamma terms do seem to decay very very fast. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 21, 2022 at 16:42
  • $\begingroup$ There are no Bernoulli numbers; I was editing very late last night and made a mistake. The expansion is now fixed. In the second sum over $j$, there are only residues of $\Gamma(s)$ at its poles, and those are well-understood. This confirms your assertion. $\endgroup$
    – 2734364041
    Commented Dec 21, 2022 at 19:33
  • $\begingroup$ Okay that makes sense. I guess the next question about your answer: I noticed you let $F(s) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(2^n)^s}$ when $f(n)=2^n$ but then you say that $F(s) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{f(n)}{n^s}$ in the general case. These two expressions don't seem to be equal so I was curious how to connect the two expressions $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 21, 2022 at 20:27
  • $\begingroup$ @SidharthGhoshal You caught another typo. Fixed; see above. You want to take $f(n)$ to be the indicator function of whether $n$ is a power of 2. With my fix above, things should make sense now. $\endgroup$
    – 2734364041
    Commented Dec 21, 2022 at 20:40
  • $\begingroup$ Instead of an indicator function can we just say that $F(s) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{f(n)^s}$? (where $f$ is our original $f$ not the indicator construction you made). Or is there something horribly wrong with doing that and its important that $f: \mathbb{N} \rightarrow \mathbb{N}$. When the indicator function is well defined these two techniques are equivalent. But this formulation has the advantage of being defined in many use cases where the indicator formulation is not. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 23, 2022 at 0:22
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Here is an elementary derivation of the first-order asymptotic for \begin{equation*} f(x):=\sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n(x) \end{equation*} (as $x\to\infty$), where \begin{equation*} a_n(x):=e^{-2^n/x}. \end{equation*}

Let \begin{equation*} x_n:=\frac{2^n}{\ln2}. \end{equation*} Then for integers $j$ \begin{equation*} a_{n+j}(x_n)=2^{-2^j}, \end{equation*} and hence \begin{equation*} \sum_{j=0}^\infty a_{n+j}(x_n)=C:=\sum_{j=0}^\infty 2^{-2^j}<\infty \tag{1}\label{1} \end{equation*} and \begin{equation*} f(x_n)\ge\sum_{m=0}^{n-k} a_m(x_n)\ge(n-k)a_{n-k}(x_n)=(n-k)2^{-2^{-k}}\sim n \end{equation*} if $k\to\infty$ and $k=o(n)$.

By \eqref{1}, \begin{equation*} f(x_n)=\sum_{m=0}^{n-1} a_m(x_n)+C\le n+C\sim n \end{equation*} (as $n\to\infty$).

So, $f(x_n)\sim n$, and hence $f(x_{n+1})\sim n+1\sim n$. Since $f$ is increasing, we have $f(x)\sim n$ for $x\in[x_n,x_{n+1}]$. Also, $\ln x_n\sim n\ln2\sim\ln x_{n+1}$, so that $\ln x\sim n\ln2$ for $x\in[x_n,x_{n+1}]$. Thus, \begin{equation} f(x)\sim\frac{\ln x}{\ln2}=\log_2 x \end{equation} as $x\to\infty$.

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  • $\begingroup$ I think I need to spell out a few more details on the second to last equation. So $f(x_n) = \sum_{m=0}^{n-1} a_m(x_n) + \sum_{m=n}^{\infty} a_m(x_n) = \sum_{m=0}^{n-1} a_m(x_n) + C_2$ where $C_2$ is a new constant (not the same as $C$). Now we claim that $\sum_{m=0}^{n-1} a_m(x_n) \le n$. We have shown that $\sum_{m=0}^{n-1} a_m(x_n) \ge (n-1)a_{n-1}(x_n) = (n-1)2^{-2^{-n}}$ and clearly this is less than $n-1$ and therefore less than $n$. Okay and then the rest follows... $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 21, 2022 at 16:56
  • $\begingroup$ I think your proof should replace that equals sign with an inequality so $f(x_n) \le \sum_{m=0}^{n-1} a_m(x_n) + C$ if we want to use the same $C$ that you defined earlier. Other than that it all seems to make sense $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 21, 2022 at 16:56
  • $\begingroup$ @SidharthGhoshal : (i) Your $C_2$ is the same as my $C$. You may of course replace $=$ in the penultimate display by $\le$ (as you can do always and anywhere) -- but, in view of (1), you can also keep $=$, which is better. (ii) The inequality $\sum_{m=0}^{n-1} a_m(x_n)\ge\cdots$ in your comment is not needed and does not help anything. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 21, 2022 at 17:39
  • $\begingroup$ oh wait the indexes match up. i understand now. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 21, 2022 at 20:36

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