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This question is a continuation of the question here.

Let $f^{*}$ be the usual decreasing rearrangement function of a measurable function $f$ on a measure space $(X, \mu)$. Let $1<p<n$ and set $$p'=\frac{pn}{n-p}.$$ Also, let $g$ be a positive, non-decreasing function on $\mathbb{R}_{+}$. Is it true that $$\left(\int_{0}^{\infty}(f^{*}(s))^{p'}(g(s))^{-p'}ds\right)^{p/p'}\leq c\int_{0}^{\infty}(f^{*}(s))^{p}(g(s))^{-p}s^{\frac{p}{p'}-1}ds$$ for some positive constant $c>0$ (possibly depending on function $g$)?

Any help is appreciated!

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$\newcommand\la\lambda\newcommand{\R}{\mathbb R}\newcommand{\de}{\delta}$The answer to this question is yes.

Indeed, let $h:=f^*/g$. Then $h$ is a nonincreasing function and the inequality in question can be rewritten as \begin{equation*} \Big(\int_0^\infty h(s)^{p'}ds\Big)^{p/p'} \le c\int_0^\infty h(s)^p s^{p/p'-1}\,ds. \tag{1}\label{1} \end{equation*} Note that $p'>p>0$.

Letting \begin{equation*} a:=p'/p>1\quad\text{and}\quad u:=h^p, \end{equation*} we see that it is enough to show that \begin{equation*} L\overset{\text{(?)}}\le \frac1a\,R, \tag{2}\label{2} \end{equation*} where \begin{equation*} L:=\Big(\int_0^\infty u(s)^a\,ds\Big)^{1/a},\quad R:=\int_0^\infty u(s)s^{1/a-1}\,ds, \end{equation*} and $u$ is a nonnegative nonincreasing function.

By approximation, without loss of generality (wlog) the function $u$ is piecewise constant, with just a finite number of discontinuities and with $u(s)=0$ for all large enough $s>0$. So, wlog \begin{equation} u(s)=\int_{(s,\infty)}\mu(dt) \end{equation} for some finite measure $\mu$ with a finite support $S_\mu\subseteq(0,\infty)$ and all real $s\ge0$. Then \begin{equation} R=\int_0^\infty ds\,s^{1/a-1}\,\int_{(s,\infty)}\mu(dt) =\int_{(0,\infty)}\mu(dt)\,\int_0^t ds\,s^{1/a-1} =a\int_{(0,\infty)}\mu(dt)\,t^{1/a} =a\int_{(0,\infty)}\nu(dt), \end{equation} where $\nu(dt):=\mu(dt)\,t^{1/a}$, and \begin{equation*} L:=\Big(\int_0^\infty ds\,\Big(\int_{(s,\infty)}\nu(dt)\,t^{-1/a}\Big)^a\Big)^{1/a}. \end{equation*} Since $a>1$, $L^a$ is convex in $\nu$ (actually, by Minkowski's inequality, even $L$ itself is convex in $\nu$), whereas $R$ is affine in $\nu$.

Note that the support of the measure $\nu$ is finite and, by homogeneity, wlog $\nu$ is a probability measure.

So, we have the following:

Given any value of $R$, the maximum of $L$ over all probability measures $\nu$ with support $S_\nu$ in a given compact interval $I$ (say of the form $[0,N]$) and with the cardinality of $S_\nu$ not exceeding a given natural number is attained at a Dirac measure $\de_z$ supported on a singleton set $\{z\}\subseteq I$. So, wlog $\nu=\de_z$, and then \begin{equation} L^a=\int_0^\infty ds\,\Big(\int_{(s,\infty)}\de_z(dt)\,t^{-1/a}\Big)^a =\int_0^\infty ds\,z^{-1}\,1(z>s)=1 \end{equation} and \begin{equation} R=a\int_{(0,\infty)}\de_z(dt)=a. \end{equation} Thus, \eqref{1} is proved. $\quad\Box$

We also see that the constant factor $\frac1a$ in \eqref{2} is the best possible one. So, the best possible constant factor in \eqref{1} is $c=\frac1a=\frac p{p'}$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you very much for your nice answer! $\endgroup$
    – Shaq155
    Commented Nov 22, 2022 at 23:47
  • $\begingroup$ Is it easy to show that $L$ is convex in $\nu$ by the Minkowski inequality, with which you mean that $\left[\int_{S_{2}}\left|\int_{S_{1}}F(x,y), \mu_{1}(dx)\right|^{p} \mu_{2}(dy)\right]^{\frac{1}{p}} \leq \int_{S_{1}}\left(\int_{S_{2}}|F(x,y)|^p\,\mu_{2}(dy)\right)^{\frac{1}{p}}\mu_{1}(dx)?$ $\endgroup$
    – Shaq155
    Commented Nov 23, 2022 at 11:17
  • $\begingroup$ @Shaq155 : Just the most basic form of the Minkowski inequality will suffice here. Indeed, $L$ is the $a$-norm of $u$, whereas $u$ is an additive (even, linear) function of $\nu$. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 23, 2022 at 13:56
  • $\begingroup$ I totally forgot about $u$. Thanks again! $\endgroup$
    – Shaq155
    Commented Nov 23, 2022 at 14:00

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