4
$\begingroup$

$\newcommand\B{\mathscr B}\newcommand\A{\mathscr A}\newcommand\si{\sigma}$Let $I:=[0,1]$, and let $\B$ and $\B^2$ denote the Borel $\si$-algebras over $I$ and $I^2$, respectively. Let $\A$ stand for the algebra generated by the set of all the product sets $A\times B\in\B\times\B$. Let $L^2$ be the Lebesgue measure on $\B^2$. Let $U$ be another measure on $\B^2$.

Question: Suppose that $L^2$ is "absolutely continuous on the algebra $\A$" with respect to $U$ -- in the sense that $L^2(C)=0$ whenever $C\in\A$ and $U(C)=0$. Does it then necessarily follow that $L^2$ is (truly) absolutely continuous with respect to $U$ (on the $\si$-algebra $\B^2$)?

The same question, restated: Suppose that $U(A\times B)>0$ whenever $A\times B\in\B\times\B$ and $L^2(A\times B)>0$. Does it then necessarily follow that $U(C)>0$ whenever $C\in\B^2$ and $L^2(C)>0$?

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

The notation $L^2$ for Lebesgue measure is confusing. I denote $\lambda$ and $\lambda_2$ the Lebesgue measure on $\mathbb{R}$ and $\mathbb{R}^2$, respectively.

The answer is no.

Fix a discrete measure $\mu$ which gives a positive mass to every rational number in $[0,2]$. Call $\nu$ the image of $\lambda \otimes \mu$ by the map $(x,y) \mapsto (x,y-x)$.

Given Borel subsets $A$ and $B$ of $[0,1]$ with positive measure, we know that the function $1_A*1_B$ is non-negative, continuous since it is a convolution between two functions in $L^2(\mathbb{R})$, and has a positive integral on $[0,2]$. Therefore, it is positive on some non-empty open subinterval of $[0,2]$. Thus \begin{eqnarray*} \nu(A \times B) &=& \int_{\mathbb{R}}\int_{\mathbb{R}} 1_{A \times B}(x,y-x)~d\lambda(x)~ d\mu(y) \\ &=& \int_{\mathbb{R}} (1_A*1_B)(y)~d\mu(y) \\ &>&0.\end{eqnarray*} Yet, $\nu$ is carried by $\{(x,z) \in \mathbb{R}^2 : x+z \in \mathbb{Q}\}$, whose $\lambda_2$ measure is null. Furthermore, $\lambda_2$ is carried by the complement of $\{(x,z) \in \mathbb{R}^2 : x+z\in \mathbb{Q}\}$, which has null $\nu$-measure. Hence, the measures $\lambda_2$ and $\nu$ are mutually singular.

The measure $(1_{I^2})\nu$ yields a couterexample.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ It appears that you have $(1_{I^2})\nu$ for $U$. If so, then in your example $U$ is not absolutely continuous w.r. to $L^2$. However, the question was, vice versa, about the absolute continuity of $L^2$ w.r. to $U$. $\endgroup$ Nov 20, 2022 at 0:13
  • $\begingroup$ @Iosif Pinellis I added a sentence to explain why the two measures are mutually singular. $\endgroup$ Nov 20, 2022 at 17:21

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.