real case: In the very first course of Calculus, one learns that a real function $f \colon \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ is called smooth, if it is differentiable as many times as one pleases. So the intuitive idea behind 'smoothness' is that the graph of $f$ is, well... smooth if you look at it.
p-adic case: Now the picture changes in the $p$-adics; one sets smooth := 'invariant w.r.t. an open subset', for example in representation theory (of let's say $\mathrm{GL}_n(K)$ of a local field $K$), and one can show that smooth = locally constant + compact support. I always took this as the definition. I also always assumed (and maybe I also heard or read) that one uses the word smooth in the $p$-adic setting, s.t. one can put things into a more general setting just by referring to smooth functions $K \to \mathbb{C}$ for whatever field $K \in \{\mathbb{Q}_p, \mathbb{R}, \mathbb{C}\}_{p \text{ prime}}$ is.
For example, one defines the space $\mathcal{S}(\mathbb{Q}_p)$ of (Bruhat)-Schwartz functions as the space of smooth functions $\mathbb{Q}_p \to \mathbb{C}$, and one has a (very) similar definition for $\mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R})$ (as smooth + rapidly decreasing derivatives). This might not be the best example but it surely reflects a little what I tried to tell.
But I am kind of not satisfied with the motivation for the definition. So my question is...
Question: Is there some deeper analogy with the real in the sense of maybe the $p$-adic differentiation? Or maybe generalizing the question.. I would really like to see some 'intuition' or rather 'motivation' behind the definition, so that I can say, "OK, this is really the right word for smoothness in the $p$-adic case".