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This question has been bugging me for a while, I have an answer that is working sufficiently for the program I'm using, but it is a tad slow, and let's say imprecise. It is not an overtly difficult question, and for that I assume someone smarter than me has already found a better explanation.

To begin, we take a value $y \in \mathbb{C}$ such that $|\log(y)| < 1$. Then we look at the exponential:

$$ b^z = e^{\log(y) z/y}\\ $$

The value $b = y^{1/y}$ is inside what we call the Shell-Thron region, in the tetration circles. This is the area in which:

$$ \lim_{n\to\infty}\exp_b^{\circ n}(0) \,\,\text{converges} $$

Or, where the iterated exponential converges.

Now, to highlight the question, we can start with $1 < b < e^{1/e}$. The exponential $b^z$ has two fixed points on the real line. There is an attracting fixed point $1 < y < e$ and a repelling fixed point $\mu > e$. Both of which satisfy:

$$ e^{\log(y)/y} = e^{\log(\mu)/\mu}\\ $$

This relationship carries over for all $|\log(y)| < 1$, not just when it is real valued. From here, my question is simple.

Can anyone describe the holomorphic function:

$$ \begin{align} f(y): \{y \in \mathbb{C} : \, |\log(y)| < 1\} &\to \{\mu \in \mathbb{C} :\,|\log(\mu)| > 1\}\\ \frac{\log f(y)}{f(y)} &= \frac{\log(y)}{y}\\ \end{align} $$

And when restricted to real values:

$$ f(y): (1,e) \to (e , \infty)\\ $$

The manner I am solving this currently is a tad involved. But if $h(z) = \frac{\log(z) y}{\log(y)} = \log_b(z)$, and $h^{\circ n}$ are the iterates of $h$:

$$ f(y) = \lim_{n\to\infty} h^{\circ n}(e)\\ $$

This formula works on the real line, and moderately well in the complex plane. But I'm not certain if it works for all $|\log(y)| < 1$, there may be issues. It essentially runs off the basis that $e$ is in the Julia set of $b^z$, and/or in the attracting basin of the fixed point $\mu$ for the logarithm $\log_b(z)$. I don't know if this is true universally though, just for a large part of the domain in question.

This has been bugging me, and any help is appreciated. In essence, does anyone know any good ways of computing/describing/constructing $f$, other than the way I mentioned?

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    $\begingroup$ Perhaps I did not understand the problem well but I have the impression that Newton's method should work well for solving your problem numerically. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 7, 2022 at 8:55
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    $\begingroup$ From a theoretical point of view, you consider a two-sheeted covering branching above $e$ of an open set of $\mathbb C$. It is thus essentially conjugate to the map $x\longmapsto (x-e)^2$ and you want a conjugating holomorphic function. You can perhaps guess the series expansion of the conjugating map at $e$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 7, 2022 at 9:00
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    $\begingroup$ Conjugacy was ill chosen: There should be a holomorphic homeomorphism $h$ and a holomorphic function $g$ such that $f(y)=g(h(y)^2)$ (i.e. your function is an even function). We do not care about $g$, all the interesting stuff happens with the homeomorphism $h$. I hope this is a bit clearer (but generally the fog lifts only completely when dirtying hands which I did not do). $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 8, 2022 at 9:18
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    $\begingroup$ @RolandBacher Honestly this helps a lot. I understand in a partial sense what you mean. But you gave me an idea of how to write $f$, that uses this intuition while still keeping Taylor series data. Thank you a lot, I think I can take it from here. I see the general direction you are suggesting, I have a bunch of tools in my toolbelt from here. I really appreciate your answer and your suggestions. It may seem dumb, but I'm that much closer to seeing the solution. Thanks :) $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 8, 2022 at 10:28
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    $\begingroup$ @RolandBacher Yes, I got it. Thanks a lot for your help. Primarily the reminder that $e$ was a branching point, and that the branching was 2 dimensional (looks like $x^2$). Thanks so much! $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 10, 2022 at 5:02

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Okay, so I found the answer to this problem! It's a tad different than I thought, so I'll give the run down. Special thanks to @RolandBacher for getting me to think about $e$ as a branching point. The answer was simpler than I thought once I dug through it.

Let

$$ g(y) = y^{1/y}\\ $$

Then, there exists two branches to the inverse of this function, call them $h_1$ and $h_2$. The first satisfies:

$$ h_1 : (1,e^{1/e}) \to (1, e)\\ $$

And the second satisfies:

$$ h_2 : (1,e^{1/e}) \to (e,\infty)\\ $$

This is just standard calculus when looking at the self-root function. Thereby, our function $f$ is just the analytic continuation of the expression:

$$ f(y) = h_2(y^{1/y})\\ $$

This solves the problem entirely. I apologize for asking a question when the answer was right in front of me, lmao. Thanks for the help, Roland!

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